A man and a woman are not the same either. Therefore, whatever standards apply to a woman doesn't apply to a man... This is literally what you are doing.
A man and a woman are both humans but God is not a human. Therefore human standards do not apply to God. This is basic logic.
I am sorry but this is not going to work. You can't merely state that two things are not identical to state the same standard doesn't apply to them.
Even if two things are very different you need to show the pertinent distinction makes the standard not applicable. You can't merely claim they are very different.
I am sorry but this is not going to work. You can't merely state that two things are identical to state the same standard applies to them.
If two things are very different you need to show how, given the pertinent distinction, the same standard is applicable. You can't merely claim they are the same.
It is inherent in this material world, but not in all possible material worlds. Therefore, you are pointing out something inconsequential.
Any other 'possible' material worlds are irrelevant since they do not exist. Therefore, you are pointing out something inconsequential.
But more importantly, you previously gave me two reasons as to why humans suffer: 1) so they don't forget God and 2) that suffering is necessary to attain perfection. If God is not directly causing that suffering, he is at least enabling it though. Am I entitled to enable your suffering just because you might forget me and forgetting me is not beneficial to you?
God is entitled to DO anything He wants to DO because He is God. How are you going to stop an omnipotent God from doing something?
You are not entitled to enable my suffering unless I allow you to.
Why would I want to remember you? Remembering you is not beneficial to me but remembering God is beneficial to me.
Then we don't need suffering.
Not unless you want to remember God.
What moral justification would a benevolent being, be it God or human, have to willfully choose suffering as the pathway to achieve perfection if a path without suffering was feasible?
Again, you are conflating God with humans which is the fallacy of false equivalence since God is not a human.
God needs no moral justification for anything He does. Only humans need moral justification since only humans are subject to morality.
moral: concerned with the principles of right and wrong behavior and the goodness or badness of human character.
moral means - Google Search
Even if a path without suffering was feasible that does not mean it is a better path. An omniscient God has to know the best path to choose of all available options since He knows everything. Humans are not omniscient so we don't know everything so we cannot ever know as much as God.
That would still entail God is not omnibenevolent. If God's purpose for humans is achieved through suffering, then God is not omnibenevolent.
No, that is not a fact because you cannot prove that an omnibenevolent God would not achieve His purpose for humans through 'some' suffering.
That is only your personal opinion.
For omnibenevolence necessarily entails choosing the path where suffering would be minimized.
How do you know suffering is not minimized? I know lots of people who hardly suffer at all.