servant1
Active Member
Every govt is corrupt.
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Many many Chariot wheels found at bottom of Red sea.
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servant1
Active Member
God made his bible, not a Pope. He may have used men, but God made his bible. The Catholic religion added 6 other books that are not in other bibles.
They are made up of mortal govts( beasts)
servant1
Active Member
Yes 99% of all religion on earth is false. Jesus is with one.
This makes your attachment to one of many conflicting ancient tribal cultures, and the rejection of science up front and clear,
servant1
Active Member
Mans use of science is flawed to the core. Gods use is perfection.
Why do you believe this? Is it evidence-based, or did you just accept what your parents told you before you developed the capacity for critical thinking?
servant1
Active Member
1Cor 1:10=Unity of though( = all of Gods 1 truth) no division= a true mark of Jesus' religion.
God had 1 religion in the OT, its all that is needed. one religion, one truth.
There was no “magic” (that’s a strawman); there was / is a Builder / Engineer.
No it hasn’t…
The attempt was made to show that the T3SS, a simpler bacterial nanomachine that injects proteins into host cells, was the ancestor to flagella. But that was debunked…
The Bacterial flagellum is apparently older.
Besides, showing how an object is reducible, does nothing to show how it’s parts were arranged by mindless mechanisms.
No one has observed that happening. Despite countless efforts in the lab.
And you speak about my faith.
GoodAttention
Well-Known Member
Perhaps I am presume that you will make the connection yourself, which is my fault.
Also my previous response to you was...uncolorful, so if you or others read it I apologize.
The language I am quoting/transcribing/transliterating (I don't know how to describe), is the Tamil language. Currently, this is a language spoken in the south of India. Hebrew as you know is spoken in Israel, and as the crow flies they are approximately 3100 miles/5000km away from each other. When you say "across regions and cultures" this is significant to me IF, as you say, there is similarity
I find it *extremely* interesting that many of the names and some words I have "converted" based on how they sound give either accurate or somewhat poetic descriptions of the Hebrew word being converted. I am not saying that the languages are connected so deeply that one is derived from the other, no. This is not a proclaimation or flag-planting exercise I am engaging in to claim ownership.
BUT what I will say is, if Hebrew is a Canaanite language, and there were many different Canaanite languages at the time, what *specifically* made Hebrew different? I would say there was an influence from another language that the "local" Canaanites didn't have.
Where did the influence come from? It comes from Abraham and his family during their time in Ur Kasdim. IF we consider this mythology, then what is the purpose of the myth?
Where is Ur Kasdim? It is in the east, I believe the Indus Valley specifically, where it is postulated that the Tamil language was spoken.
What evidence is there that they left in the first place? The 4.2ky event is the start, in addition to both languages that, when translated, give meaningful answers. I believe the Hebrew scriptures correlate this also with Peleg and Abraham being born in a "foreign land".
Why haven't we heard of this before? We are only starting to understand this climatic event through modeling, and the effect it had on populations and potential movements of peoples around the world.
Here is one article I found on a quick Google search specific to the Northern Fertile Crescent.
Collapse and continuity: A multi-proxy reconstruction of settlement organization and population trajectories in the Northern Fertile Crescent during the 4.2kya Rapid Climate Change event - PMC
The rise and fall of ancient societies have been attributed to rapid climate change events. One of the most discussed of these is the 4.2kya event, a period of increased aridity and cooling posited as the cause of societal changes across the globe, ...
Huh???
Magic is a mechanism. God is an agent. "Who?" does not answer "how?"
So what mechanism did God use?
Yet we see mindless chemical and physical mechanisms everywhere, underlying everything we examine. Magic, on the other hand, has never been observed. We never see species popping into existence ex nihilo. So what seems more likely?
We observe complex biological structures being assembled by mindless chemistry all the time. We observes examples of progressive steps in the development of complex structures in other species. The actual evolution of a biological component, of course, would require observation of multiple generations, and be impracticable.
Your faith is, well... faith -- unevidenced or poorly evidenced belief; beliefs not based on objective evidence.
My beliefs are knowledge. -- based on repeatable, reproducible, testable observations.
Which has proved more reliable? Which has proven more productive? Which produces consensus, rather than speculation, folklore and hundreds of conflicting doctrines?
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Audie
Veteran Member
Such “ faith” as is demonstrated is not faith in any god.
It’s faith in one’s self as infallible.
Thay one simply cannot be wrong about his belief in his chosen
god, in his interpretation of a book, anything related to this god.
At it’s core, there is a complete failure of intellectual honesty.
Worse than failure, it’s self glorification from the abandoning of
honesty. Of integrity.
To claim the renouncing of integrity as Faith in god is a monstrous thing.
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I suspect that a Venn diagram correlating biblical literalism and MAGA support would demonstrate a considerable overlap.
I have already referenced the influence and relationship and similarities between between the languages across Eurasia from Great Britain to India centered on the Southern Central Asian Steppe, Trade is documented across all these regions since the Neolithic. Language and by the way the development of written language is rooted in trade. Those Kingdoms and tribes involved in trade most developed written language the earliest,
Trade over the regions across Eurasia beginning in the Neolithic. Some vocabulary was even exchanged with China due to the evolution of the trade route with China, Various fruits and vegetable species were exchanged in the process,
OK
I believe the foreign language relationships is well explained from the Middle Est to Asia Minor and Africa through out the history of the Hebrews. Genetic relationships reflect this relationship.
You are stretching the concept of a foreign land a bit far. Genetics is strong evidence that Hebrews were a Canaanite Tribe with relationships with Kingdoms and tribes of the Middle East, Africa and the Asia Minor.
Will address this more later,Why haven't we heard of this before? We are only starting to understand this climatic event through modeling, and the effect it had on populations and potential movements of peoples around the world.
Here is one article I found on a quick Google search specific to the Northern Fertile Crescent.
Collapse and continuity: A multi-proxy reconstruction of settlement organization and population trajectories in the Northern Fertile Crescent during the 4.2kya Rapid Climate Change event - PMC
The rise and fall of ancient societies have been attributed to rapid climate change events. One of the most discussed of these is the 4.2kya event, a period of increased aridity and cooling posited as the cause of societal changes across the globe, ...www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov
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Here is one article I found on a quick Google search specific to the Northern Fertile Crescent.
Collapse and continuity: A multi-proxy reconstruction of settlement organization and population trajectories in the Northern Fertile Crescent during the 4.2kya Rapid Climate Change event - PMC
The rise and fall of ancient societies have been attributed to rapid climate change events. One of the most discussed of these is the 4.2kya event, a period of increased aridity and cooling posited as the cause of societal changes across the globe, ...
It is a good article on the 4.2K event, and the redistribution of population and urban centers in the Middle East based on regional differences of desertification conditions, But the event is not isolated in the climate change since the last Ice Age, Similar migrations occurred between 10,000 and 5,500 ago in the desertification of the Sahara, and the rise of Egypt due to migration out of the Sahara, This trend in climate change began at the end of the last Ice Age and impacted almost all of Eurasia..
I explored some related interest in paleolithic climate cycles and change over time of India. My present conclusion is they are very different in response than Europe and the Middle East from the end of the last Ice Age, because of the dominance of the Himalayas and the Indian Ocean . The greatest monsoon period was between ~10,000 and ~5,500 yrs BP. A low monsoon period was ~5,500 to 2,000 yrs BP.
One thing I am trying find is evidence of any significant migration between the Indus Valley and the Middle East. I have found none. Though ther is evidence of trade over the millennia.
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From someone who is clueless about science.
GoodAttention
Well-Known Member
I would argue what makes the event "different" as opposed to isolated comes down to duration and intensity, reflected in the redistribution of population centers.
What I note is the urban centers move east in conjunction with a significant population decline between 2300 and 1900BCE.
I propose that, whilst the urban center moves eastward initially, as a consequence of the climate change and thereby allowing some of the population to remain "local", a significant group travels even further east.
The way I liken it is, a center becomes smaller and more concentrated, since the environment around it is not as conducive to being a place of residence/survival. Since the climatic event is acute and intense, meaning relatively *short* in duration, a significant percentage of the population must move elsewhere. This is because, rather than "adapt" to the environment, they change their location to an area that was more conducive to their existence, i.e. the ownership and raising of sheep, and large numbers of them, within the context of an urban environment, i.e. population centers in the 10s of thousands.
Therefore my conclusion is, a move towards urban centers from the Northern Fertile Crescent during the 4.2ky event period (plus/minus hundreds of years only) can be considered, and that this direction was eastward. People living in urban centers would aim to move towards other urban centers. Adding on factors such as political stability meant not all urban centers would have been suitable (Such as Akkad and Elam).
Hence why a continual movement east towards a greater civilization that was known at the time, i.e. the Indus Valley Civilization, could be considered both logical and the best answer within the context of an acute and intense climate change period (4.2ky event), in addition to the avoidance of settling in areas of instability (Akkadian empire and relations with Elam city-states), by those people whos livelihood was dependent on being close to urbanized centers (such as wealthy sheep herders).
I am still looking, but your stretching the extent of the migration far beyond any line of the evidence. The genetic, archeological and historical evidence negate any such migration between the Middle East and the Indus Valley. Yes there is extensive evidence for regional trade across Eurasia going back to the Neolithic. Your neglecting this issue concerning the linguistic relationships across Eurasia.
The reference you provided only described migration, changes in population and urban centers within the Middle East.
The 4.2 K climate change event is most definitely not as severe and extensive as the Aridification event that resulted in the Sahara Desert, and the extended impact across Eurasia, Your over stating one event. which was part of the greater worldwide Climate Change after the end of the last Ice Age. The change in the Americas was truly extreme.
GoodAttention
Well-Known Member
You are applying a macroscopic lens to what is being described, which is not why or how I intend to conclude. I am not saying there was a massive movement of peoples from the Northern Fertile Crescent towards the east because, firstly, there wasn't enough of them to consider it a "migration" of peoples, and secondly, it was a "divided" movement, i.e. it wasn't like an entire peoples picked up and left, otherwise the urban centers would have been abandones, and the evidence would have been more obvious.
This was as I say, "short and sweet" within a historical context, that is over 200-300 years. It was also a "divided" movement, being some stayed, and some settled along the way. Genetics is therefore completely irrelevant in what I am proposing.
You could then say what I am saying can never be proved. I agree with that.
Then why am I saying it? I am giving as much of a potentially "real" explanation to what is mentioned within the Hebrew scriptures, keeping in mind that what is "known" or explained about Peleg "Earth divided" and the location of Ur Kasdim is still being debated. Add this to my usage of the Tamil language when describing meaning of Hebrew names and words and I am, in effect, building a case for a answering those questions about the scripture that are still being debated.
Most importantly I am looking to answer what language was spoken in the Indus Valley, which in my opinions shows more of a Tamil root, and not a Proto-Indo-European one.
servant1
Active Member
I am not clueless--I have watched for years man misuse science and math. They have destroyed the Ozone layer, Polluted Gods air, land and water thus our food as well. They are selling us cancer. All for the almighty dollar over life of mankind. They know its being done, to stop it would destroy economy's, they wont do it. But thank God he will step in soon and bring to ruin those ruining the earth. Jesus will bring Gods kingdom rule here at Rev 19:11-The whole earth will live by its power. Gods kingdom will be a cure all=science and math used with precision to benefit mankind=forever.
I do not believe this is the case
I ever remotely indicated there was any sort of mass migration. I only support movement within the Middle East, Asia Minor, and Africa, Climate was the main factor among the tribes and cultures of the Region before ~2000 BCE. One problem the populations are indeed generally small, and the influence of any genetic relationship would be significant as it is among the tribes and kingdoms of the Levant,
I do not accept this line of reasoning outside the Middle East, Asia Minor and Africa.
I believe there is no evidence for it,
I do not buy the very speculative relationship of Hebrew Names with the Tamil language. The overall argument is too weak.
I do not consider this important to argument, It is just generally accepted that Tamil is the oldest root language of the region. You are overstating the importance of names, when there is no other significant evidence to support it.
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