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Mathematical Proof of God?

F1fan

Veteran Member
It's not. It's an (unsound) argument that the universe has a cause. You can tell that by the conclusion which reads, "Therefore, the universe has a cause of its existence."

In order for the Kalam to be an argument for God, it would have to contain a reference to God in the premises.

Spoiler Alert: The Kalam contains no references to any gods, including God, what-so-ever.
Yes, my criticisms are numerous.

The Big Bang is explained as a change of state of existing energy, not a creation event.

There might be a cause for the change in state, but why assume a supernatural cause when there is no supernatural phenomena observed or known to exist?

We observe natural causes for effects consistently, so why is that rejected for an unknown phenomenon?

Why assume a supernatural cause is a god of some sort, and not some mindless force like gravity?

The whole KCA argument is designed for a conclusion that satisfies religious people, and validate beliefs that have no factual or real means of rational support.

The arguments try to force a God into existence through the use of words.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
I just realized that I've been arguing for I-can't-remember-how-many pages with someone whose go-to debate tactic is copy-pasting "Dumb Dumb" when he sees something he disagrees with as if he has something meaningful or worthwhile to say.

I'm out.

Good residence to rhetorical rubbish.

IF the KCA is not arguing for the existence of God as cited what is the purpose of the argument?

Maybe the 'absolute beginning' of our universe is caused by 'Aliens or may maybe the Spaghetti Monster.
 

Link

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Good residence to rhetorical rubbish.

IF the KCA is not arguing for the existence of God as cited what is the purpose of the argument?

Maybe the 'absolute beginning' of our universe is caused by 'Aliens or may maybe the Spaghetti Monster.

Salam

He is not wrong. It proves a Creator, but you need additional arguments to prove it's the ultimate being. So he was correct, it's just a component to over all make one look at other arguments for God.

Itself proves a Creator that's it. Does not even prove it's one Creator, you need other arguments for that.
 

ppp

Well-Known Member
IF the KCA is not arguing for the existence of God as cited what is the purpose of the argument?
The purpose of the argument is to provide an easy and intuitive mnemonic for his target audience, and to instill a façade of philosophical legitimacy to the apologetic. The KCA always precedes a list of assertions about what the cause in the conclusion must be. There is never a argument for what that cause must be. Just those bald assertions.
 

Kharisym

Member

Laws of logic applies to any possible world…and even mathematical proofs; 2+2=4 in all possible worlds.

I totally agree with this. :) When thinking about the origin of the universe one of the things I considered is if logic itself is bound to our universe. Luckily more intelligent people than I have made proofs showing that logic is unbound and consistent outside our universe as well. In my thread explaining my beliefs about the universe's creation, I largely just regurgitate one of those proofs and add some stuff to counter criticisms I and others had made in the past.

Ahhh. Not so fast. The argument is that God was timeless or (atemporal) before creation, and from the moment of creation (t=0), God entered into time (or initiated time), and now God is currently in time, just like you and I are.
So as of now, God operates within time.

Both the universe and extra-universe now experiences time. But the extra-universe did not experience time before time was initiated with the creation of the universe.
The universe and time, both began to exist simultaneously. You cannot have one without the other. It is called the space-time continuum.


Ah! So you're saying the time-frame of the extraverse changed? So it started timeless (No time dimension/vector), then when the universe came into being the extra-verse began to experience time (gained a time dimension/vector)?

Taking a small leap into personal curiosity, is this an indication that you believe that heaven resides in the extraverse hence why it must have a time vector?

Just to be sure, you are not claiming that the extraverse became our universe, correct?

Am I correct that you came to the conclusion that God must have transitioned from a timeless to a timeful state to allow personal interaction with humanity? I've thought about this before, and you have to make the same assumptions for a timeless thing to create a universe as you have to make for a timeless thing to interact with a universe, and because they share the same assumptions, they have problems with the same criticism (and, by extension, my core criticism of WL Craig's model: The interaction of mind and timelessness. We're not really talking about this criticism, but its one of my essential arguments against WL Craig.)

Nope. Actually, the extra-universe time frame could not have extended infinitely into the past. Remember, the problem with infinity regress; that problem applies even to God and heaven’s realm.

I misunderstood again, sorry. I fear I'm not really getting the comparison you made between the finite age of our universe vs an eternal past. I'm not sure how to interpret this line of discussion any further.


No need to assume, because time does exist in the extra-verse.

What's your proof that time necessarily exists in the extraverse?

Wait a minute, didn’t you state that 3 is the “life permitting” side? Well, that IS the value.

And that is the point; only one of the sides has the life permitting value (thus, 1 chance in X). The chances of it landing on something is 100%, but casino patrons don’t gamble so that the die can land on something, but rather, a specific something.

Not so fast. Remember, the odds are 1 chance in 10^10^123. Gold was struck on the first try, and the odds were astronomically against it..yet it was accomplished.

The 10^10^123 probability is based on the initial conditions ALONE, meaning that the initial conditions themselves had to be fine-tuned before you even have the chance of having life…and even once the conditions were met, you are still far from life, considering that the initial condition parameters are independent of the parameters relating to the cosmic constants (their values), which would also need to be precisely set and could not be off by a tiniest degree.

That is all engineering at its finest…and mindless & blind forces do not accomplish those feats…but minds can.

Ah, perhaps I wasn't clear. Any number of sides on the die can be life-permitting, just different kinds of life than us. Think of it like this: Fine tuning relies on an assumption that the goal of creation was to create *us*, but if creation has no goal then we exist the way we are because the universe just happens to the the way it is. If the die landed on any other side, then laws of the universe would be different, and if life did develop within that universe that life would have developed to fit that universe.

The bumper sticker philosophy for this would be: The universe wasn't made for us, we were made for the universe.

What is your best evidence for materialism?

That's a discussion all on its own. You can probably tell I'm long winded, so we can hold that discussion at a later time. Sorry to refuse answering, I just really want to keep inside the 12000 character limit. lol. I stated that I'm a materialist just to clarify where I'm coming from.

The problem with that is; all the physical objects within the universe, or STEM (space, time, energy, mass), began to exist. So you can only trace each representation back so far until there is nothing there for anything to be represented. Yet, there needs to be an explanation of STEM’s origins, and you cannot logically provide an explanation of STEM’s origins by looking within STEM.

An external explanation is needed…and not only is it needed, but it is absolutely, positively necessary.

Hmm, maybe I didn't make myself clear. Representation is not an *inherent* property, its an *assigned* property. Without something to assign representation, there is no representation. In other words, a speck of sand in another galaxy does not possess the representation quality because nobody has given it that quality, but the sun possesses the quality 'evil harbringer of waking doom' because I assigned it that. My point behind this paragraph was to establish the foundation for self representation. Its actually really easy to see god in this model, but that is as problematic as using the copenhagen interpretation as a concept of god.

You can read more about self representation here: Self-Representational Theories of Consciousness - Bibliography - PhilPapers


[Mind states are the activation structure of a collection of neurons is] not necessarily true. I don’t know exactly how the mind correlates with the brain, and I don’t think anyone does…HOWEVER, it is clear that they are not the same thing.

When you are sad, your neurons aren’t sad. When you are angry, your neurons aren’t angry. When you are happy, your neurons aren’t happy. When you think of an apple, your neurons aren’t thinking about the apple, nor are your neurons THE apple that you are thinking of.

I agree they're not the same thing. The point is that mind states arise from the structure of activation of the brain. The brain provides structure to the mind states, and the mind is comprised of those mindstates.

When your sad, your neurons aren't sad, but the mindstate arising from the activity of your neurons is representative of sadness. We experience this sadness because the mindstates are self-representative.


Please clarify [that these mind states must be self representative because if an external thing such as a different brain region or a god were to assign representation to these mindstates, then you end up in the realm of infinite regression, aka the humunculus fallacy.]

...Please clarify what you mean. Because from the looks of things, it is a non sequitur.

The humunculus fallacy is an argument specific to cognitive science. The premise is that some qualities of thought cannot be the product of things external to the phenomenon being studied. IE, if the awareness component of thought is the product of a brain region dedicated to awareness (the humunculus), then that brain region requires a region within it dedicated to being aware of what the preceding region needs to be aware of (the humunculus's humunculus), ad infinitum. This applies to representation as well.

Why are you under the impression that the mind states of that god would also have to have something external to itself to assign their representative qualities?

Because if God is possessing of a mind, and his mind is capable of self representation, then why is it that another thing possessing of a mind (humans) cannot possess self representation?

The critical question: Why would God be capable of self representation and humans not?

Since the neurons began to exist (along with the rest of STEM), and given the fact that a case can/has been made that a mind was required to bring STEM into existence, then it logically follows that neurons was not needed for the mind which created neurons (and STEM) to exist.

This argument assumes the existence of God and I would disagree that its been proven that a mind is required to create the universe. As I stated previously, the entirety of our discussion has shifted such that it has no bearing on why I'm an atheist *except* for the question of if the mind requires an external thing (god, soul, etc).

If you're trying to make an argument from inherited properties, IE, a thing can only possess the properties of the thing it originates from, then I had previously provided an example to show this isn't so: Iron possesses properties hydrogen does not, yet it originates from hydrogen. Other examples: Fermions making atoms, quarks making fermions, atoms making molecules.

Since you touched on the soul being the carrier of the mind, let me ask why the properties of the mind such as memory, personality, cognitive function etc., can be manipulated via brain damage?
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
I just realized that I've been arguing for I-can't-remember-how-many pages with someone whose go-to debate tactic is copy-pasting "Dumb Dumb" when he sees something he disagrees with as if he has something meaningful or worthwhile to say.

I'm out.

"Dumb Dumb" is very descriptive of your simplistic meaningless argument and failure to acknowledge the specific references I provided.

The many pages reflect your failure to respond to the references provided.
 

ppp

Well-Known Member
Yes, my criticisms are numerous.

The Big Bang is explained as a change of state of existing energy, not a creation event.

There might be a cause for the change in state, but why assume a supernatural cause when there is no supernatural phenomena observed or known to exist?

We observe natural causes for effects consistently, so why is that rejected for an unknown phenomenon?

Why assume a supernatural cause is a god of some sort, and not some mindless force like gravity?

The whole KCA argument is designed for a conclusion that satisfies religious people, and validate beliefs that have no factual or real means of rational support.

The arguments try to force a God into existence through the use of words.
Absolutely. All those.
Plus the KCA is founded on an equivocation fallacy. In the first premise the phrase "begins to exist" refers to the common everyday things we see around us. Which are all rearrangement events of stuff that already exists. In the second premise, "began to exist" refers to their ex nihilo event where their god poofed the universe into existence. Until they can settle on one definition, that argument is good for nothing but a door stop.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
The purpose of the argument is to provide an easy and intuitive mnemonic for his target audience, and to instill a façade of philosophical legitimacy to the apologetic. The KCA always precedes a list of assertions about what the cause in the conclusion must be. There is never a argument for what that cause must be. Just those bald assertions.

The misleading bald assertions, misuse of common assumptions of beginnings, and failure of the argument claims from the perspective of the Theistic apologists and the failure of the KCA argument is not an issue here.

It is a fact that since its inception in Islamic apologetics the purpose of the 'stand alone' KCA was to prove the existence of God as referenced and you failed to respond to the references.
 
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shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
Absolutely. All those.
Plus the KCA is founded on an equivocation fallacy. In the first premise the phrase "begins to exist" refers to the common everyday things we see around us. Which are all rearrangement events of stuff that already exists. In the second premise, "began to exist" refers to their ex nihilo event where their god poofed the universe into existence. Until they can settle on one definition, that argument is good for nothing but a door stop.

True.
 

Kharisym

Member
Good residence to rhetorical rubbish.

IF the KCA is not arguing for the existence of God as cited what is the purpose of the argument?

Maybe the 'absolute beginning' of our universe is caused by 'Aliens or may maybe the Spaghetti Monster.

Salam

He is not wrong. It proves a Creator, but you need additional arguments to prove it's the ultimate being. So he was correct, it's just a component to over all make one look at other arguments for God.

Itself proves a Creator that's it. Does not even prove it's one Creator, you need other arguments for that.

^^ This. Here are the sources:

The KCA is a subset of a larger body of arguments meant to refute the application of Grecian logic, namely the Grecian proofs of an eternal world, to Islam and therefore refute what he deems heretical application that undermines the teachings of Islam. It originates from Al-Ghazali's book, The Incoherence of the Philosophers and is described in the first section, "Refuting the doctrine of the world's pre-eternity." Both philosphies, the KCA and the eternal world (as used by Islamic philosophers) both assume the existence of a creator God. One of Al-Ghazali's points later in his book is attempting to show that an eternal world cannot prove God's existence, but that God's existence necessarily follows from the KCA.

The book: https://ia801304.us.archive.org/24/items/imamghazali_201510/Al Ghazali Incoherence of the Philosophers.pdf
A Beginner’s Guide to the Kalam Cosmological Argument
The Incoherence of the Philosophers - Wikipedia

So you might say the KCA itself is incomplete in that it is a *subset* of arguments proving God. WL Craig took the KCA, and then reapplied it adding his own set of proofs structured for the modern day.

edit: You're both sort of wrong. :)
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
^^ This. Here are the sources:

I agree and disagree with your reference. As a stand-alone argument or in combination with the other associated arguments, all the different arguments of Kalam individually or collectively have a purpose of proving the existence of God.

Contemporary apologetic sources refer to the various Kalam arguments independently and collectively as proofs of the existence of God as referenced concerning the Cosmological argument.

Whether right or wrong contemporary apologists do use the various Kalam arguments independently as proof of the existence of God.
 

Kharisym

Member
I agree and disagree with your reference. As a stand-alone argument or in combination with the other associated arguments, all the different arguments of Kalam individually or collectively have a purpose of proving the existence of God.

Contemporary apologetic sources refer to the various Kalam arguments independently and collectively as proofs of the existence of God as referenced concerning the Cosmological argument.

Whether right or wrong contemporary apologists do use the various Kalam arguments independently as proof of the existence of God.

This reads to me like we're splitting semantic hairs. I don't think there's too much difference between having the "purpose of proving the existence of god" and "Proving the competing theory cannot prove the existence of god" as established in the original text. The other big difference in our two points is the *origin* of the application--I'm looking at it from the perspective of the KCA's original purpose. I fully agree that these days its used almost exclusively by theists who are expanding on it to try and prove that God necessarily follows from it.

In short, I think we're essentially saying the same thing, it just appears like we're not because I'm looking at its original purpose and you're looking at its current usage.
 

shunyadragon

shunyadragon
Premium Member
This reads to me like we're splitting semantic hairs. I don't think there's too much difference between having the "purpose of proving the existence of god" and "Proving the competing theory cannot prove the existence of god" as established in the original text. The other big difference in our two points is the *origin* of the application--I'm looking at it from the perspective of the KCA's original purpose. I fully agree that these days its used almost exclusively by theists who are expanding on it to try and prove that God necessarily follows from it.

In short, I think we're essentially saying the same thing, it just appears like we're not because I'm looking at its original purpose and you're looking at its current usage.

I believe I am looking at both. The Islamic apologists as well as recent Christian apologists had the same purpose to prove the existence of God based on a series of apologetic arguments considered individually and collectively.

What is the kalam cosmological argument for the existence of God? | GotQuestions.org

Cosmological arguments attempt to demonstrate God’s existence using the concept of causality. Effects require a cause, and everything we observe in the universe appears to be an effect; therefore, there must be an underlying or primary cause of all things. These arguments typically come in two major types, known as the “horizontal” and “vertical” approaches. The most commonly used form is “horizontal,” also known as the kalam cosmological argument. According to the kalam, there can be only one itself-uncaused-and-eternal thing that causes all other things, and that first cause is God.
 
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Venni_Vetti_Vecci

The Sun Does Not Rise In Hell
If you cannot remember the words you said in your previous posts, don't bother to respond.

?

Citation required.

If you need a citation for a well-established fact in cosmology, then that says a lot about you.

I find it quite disturbing, actually.

All of this smugness from someone who doesn't have a clue about what is going on with the subject that he is discussing.

Smh.

You are batting zero.

Opinions.
 

Venni_Vetti_Vecci

The Sun Does Not Rise In Hell
Salam
He is not wrong. It proves a Creator, but you need additional arguments to prove it's the ultimate being.

Let me jump in here, because you are WRONG.

The argument is that the Creator created from nothing...and if an entity has the power to create from nothing, I would say this entity is the ultimate being.

So he was correct, it's just a component to over all make one look at other arguments for God.

?

Itself proves a Creator that's it. Does not even prove it's one Creator, you need other arguments for that.

Only one Creator is needed to produce the effect, so there is no need to posit any more than what is needed.

And besides that, only one Creator is needed to destroy atheism hahaha.

That's all it takes, and that is what we have.
 

ppp

Well-Known Member
It is a fact that since its inception in Islamic apologetics the purpose of the 'stand alone' KCA was to prove the existence of God as referenced and you failed to respond to the references.
I think you are intertangling way too much in that statement. Assuming that that was someone's purpose to the standalone KCA, does not negate the fact that people like Craig uses it as an element. This statement that you disagreed with was absolutely true:
People like William Lane Craig use the KCA as an element of their arguments for God.
We can tell that it is true in that Craig does not stop with the conclusion of the KCA. After stating the conclusion of the argument he goes on to assert "from that we can conclude that that cause is an [extremely powerful, timeless, spaceless, immaterial, eternal, intelligent, personal, transcendent and necessary being] that we call God." This, like the KCA, is also an element of his argument. It is simply a less formal and entirely invalid argument. But those are both elements of the argument for God by Craig and the people who use his formulation.

This does not mean that originator of the Islamic version did not intend the KCA to be an argument for God. But it does not make it one. And original intent does not change or supersede the fact of current intent. Purpose lies in the person. Not in the argument.
 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
The Kalaam argument may have been used as an element of arguments for God, but it isn't an argument for God in its own right.
Correct.

One of the earliest formulations of the Kalam cosmological argument in the Islamic philosophical tradition comes from Al-Ghazali, who writes:

"Every being which begins has a cause for its beginning; now the world is a being which begins; therefore, it possesses a cause for its beginning."

Note the absence of any deity in the argument.

 

Sheldon

Veteran Member
False, The KCA argument was first proposed byʿIlm al-Kalām an Islamic theologian as an argument for the existence of THE first cause, God

The original argument was only a first cause argument. Though as Islamic philosophers would n doubt tack on the same unevidenced assumptions that Christians do. It is a first cause argument, that is manifest in the argument, no deity is argued for, only assumed at the end.
 
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