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Modern man like footprints found, evolution theory in doubt.

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Anything traveling at the speed of light, i.e. in the early universe, does not experience the lapse of time, Correct ?
More technically, the proper time along a null-geodesic is zero. So yes, whether or not we are in the early universe.

Now, why do you think this is relevant for the early universe? Quarks were around before they condensed into protons and neutrons and quarks are massive. So they cannot go the speed of light. Also, whenever there is light, there will be massive particle/anti-particle pairs produced, and those will not be going the speed of light.

Time dilation for very distant and very old stellar objects observed effect the apparent age of the objects observed, yes or no ? No qualifications needed.
No. We see them as they were when the light left them, but time dilation effects are not relevant in this situation. The 'relative velocity' that arises from the expansion of space does NOT conform to special relativity effects. In particular, when on a co-moving reference frame, the proper time is the same as the coordinate time.

You assumed a challenge that wasn't intended nor offered re variable time on earth by relativity or time dilation. My point was regarding time measurement regarding very distant objects, looking back into the history of the universe.

And you were wrong about such.

Regarding radioactive decay, I don't think I made a definitive claim, I think I asked some questions. I will post some observations on this specific subject, keep your intellectual daggers sharp.

Good luck!
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Well, that gets into the whole "what's a Christian" and "who are the real Christians" debates, which personally I'm not interested in.
I agree, which is why I draw no conclusions. But what does bother me is when I see some people taking positions that defy basic Christian ethics while calling themselves "Christian".

My post regarding this was to try and get one to introspect on what they're saying because of an apparent inconsistency. I personally don't get into the "who's a true Christian" issue, but I will point out what appears to be an inconsistency if it appears there may be one.
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
Yes, because it is held by faith, as ell as evidence, just as cosmology and abiogenisis/evolution are a "religion" based on evidence and faith. The only difference is that you strap on the mantle of "science" and believe you are superior. However, we use science as well, but you categorically dismiss it, because you believe that somehow YOUR science is superior

No, the difference is that we *test* our ideas against observation. That is what makes it science, after all.

You have a predetermined set of conclusions that cannot be denied. We have a set of hypotheses that we *try* to show when they fail.

And yes, that does make 'my' science superior.
 

dad1

Active Member
I assume you're making another false assumption about me.

Notice that i haven't actually argued about origin sciences here, merely your ability to argue against it. That doesn't tell anything of me, but comments like that sure do tell a lot about you.
No ability is needed to argue against something that you can't support. Notice?
 

dad1

Active Member
There was no creation week, 6000 years ago, and no global flood 4350 years ago.
Keep us posted on all that existed or not in a past you know nothing about eh? We look to you.
Genesis 1 to 8 are all myths - an allegory.
You were there?
It is not history, and there are no scientific merits whatsoever in Genesis.
Since poor little science cannot cover origins the spiritual, or creation. Praytell, how would we expect science to have merit on those issues?
 

dad1

Active Member
You are being completely unreasonable. Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
How does that work, when you have nothing that is evidence for something then?
Just because they don't include the specific evidence in a short summary of evolutionary science, doesn't mean that it doesn't exist.
Great, so pick some point you DO have evidence for and post that. Fairy story sites are silly.


You make yourself look foolish by refusing to go the extra step and do a simple online search to learn more about the evidence they base the 6 million year claim on.
Been there done that and know it is godless unsupported, unsupportable garbage.
Also, "man" is synonymous with "human". "Human" refers to any member of the genus "homo".
No, Man kind is only man in the bible. For so called science to lump in all sorts of imaginary and real creatures into a group called human is rejected as dishonest.

So, obviously enough, the ancestors of homo sapiens (us) are included.
No such ancestor. You simply misunderstand the history and fossil record of earth and man.

Homo is the genus that comprises the species Homo sapiens, which includes modern humans, as well as several extinct species classified as ancestral to or closely related to modern humans, most notably Homo erectus (from Homo - Wikipedia).
For clarity then, we need another term, like 'imaginary man' or something. You may not lump actual man in with imaginary man.
But, to provide an answer to your "question" about them looking back at our ancestors 6 million years ago is because our oldest known ancestor was Sahelanthropus tchadensis.
Year of Discovery: 2001
History of Discovery:
The first (and, so far, only) fossils of Sahelanthropus are nine cranial specimens from northern Chad. A research team of scientists led by French paleontologist Michael Brunet uncovered the fossils in 2001, including the type specimen TM 266-01-0606-1. Before 2001, early humans in Africa had only been found in the Great Rift Valley in East Africa and sites in South Africa, so the discovery of Sahelanthropus fossils in West-Central Africa shows that the earliest humans were more widely distributed than previously thought.

Here's how we know how old the fossils are (https://naturalhistory.si.edu/exhibits/backyard-dinosaurs/questions-answers.cfm?know=a24):
Your incomplete fossil bits do not tell us it was a man. I kid you not.

How do we know the ages of fossils and fossil-bearing rocks?

Scientists combine several well-tested techniques to find out the ages of fossils. The most important are Relative Dating, in which fossils and layers of rock are placed in order from older to younger, and Radiometric Dating, which allows the actual ages of certain types of rock to be calculated.

Relative Dating. Fossils are found in sedimentary rocks that formed when eroded sediments piled up in low-lying places such as river flood plains, lake bottoms or ocean floors. Sedimentary rock typically is layered, with the layers derived from different periods of sediment accumulation. Almost any place where the forces of erosion - or road crews - have carved through sedimentary rock is a good place to look for rock layers stacked up in the exposed rock face.
This is assuming that the present laws including radioactive decay existed. Prove it or you may not use them'
These rock layers formed from sediments deposited in a lake. Click to zoom. Photo courtesy of Rod Benson, www.formontana.net.

When you look at a layer cake, you know that the layer at the bottom was the first one the baker put on the plate, and the upper ones were added later. In the same way, geologists figure out the relative ages of fossils and sedimentary rock layers; rock layers, and the fossils they contain, toward the bottom of a stack of sediments are older than those found higher in the stack.
Doesn't matter if no ages are known. Yes there are layers.

If you require more evidence, please make your questions more specific. But, I am happy to provide further evidence if you are interested and open minded at all.
Assuming and believing for NO reason that the past was the same state is not evidence. Prove it.

The following provides the thousands of human fossils found that all support the theory of evolution. Just for example, when you look at the different species of humans throughout the ages, there is a clear, undeniable progression of changes leading up to modern humans. And, all of those changes can be explained with genetic mutations over long periods of time. And, the changes can be explained by natural selection, as humans were evolving to better suit their changing environment.
Yes changes happened and evolving! In fact evolving was super fast presumably in the far past. In no way does that support man from animal religion falsely called science.
Well, that is just silly. Couldn't I just as easily say that you can't provide any evidence that shows atoms behaved differently in the past, so, therefore, atoms did not behave differently?
You could, but again, it would be just belief!



So, in other words, you are unable to point to any reasoning behind your belief that atoms behaved differently in the past. So, why do you buy into it? Is there any reason why you think that atoms somehow behaved differently? How did they behave differently specifically?
So, in other words, you are unable to point to any reasoning behind your belief that atoms behaved the same in the past. So, why do you buy into it? Is there any reason why you think that atoms somehow behaved the same?
 

dad1

Active Member
if you look at a star 10 light years away, then what you see is that star 10 years ago.
False. Prove time exists there as here?
If you look at a galaxy 2 million light years away, then you are seeing that galaxy as it was 2 million years ago.
Your whole idea is wrong. Try and support the cosmic distance ladder and see.
So, yes, we can see how things were even in the very early universe.
How early or late you do not know. How far, or how big you do not know. What else beyond physical mass and forces may exist you don't know.

The background radiation comes from a time when the universe was only about 300,000 years old. That was over 13.7 billion years ago.
Creation microwave radiation. Forget ages, you have no way of determining those.

The period of nucleogenesis was even before that and shows that nuclear reactions were happening with the same cross sections as now.
Prove it.
 

dad1

Active Member
Of course you won't. Because you can't.

You're pretty comfortable making absolute assertions about something you believe solely on faith while simultaneously dismissing the mountains of empirical evidence in favour of evolution. It's odd to me.
Why would I discuss religion with pagans?
 

dad1

Active Member
Do you think it makes sense for our bodies to expend so much energy maintaining our large brain for us only to use part of it?
I think it makes sense that languages started at Babel. Why? Something seems to have changed when people no longer could communicate widely!
 

dad1

Active Member
Yes, because it is held by faith, as ell as evidence, just as cosmology and abiogenisis/evolution are a "religion" based on evidence and faith. The only difference is that you strap on the mantle of "science" and believe you are superior. However, we use science as well, but you categorically dismiss it, because you believe that somehow YOUR science is superior
Nope. Not even close. I would no more use science to determine facts of creation than I would use Buzz Lightyear to ride to infinity and beyond.
 

Darkstorn

This shows how unique i am.
No ability is needed to argue against something that you can't support. Notice?

I've noticed that. It's the reason i'm not arguing your original claims at all. It is unnecessary. You can't support your claims at all.

I'm merely showing your irrational behavior and multiple contradictions. Here you once again argue your own claims.

Nope. Not even close. I would no more use science to determine facts of creation than I would use Buzz Lightyear to ride to infinity and beyond.

You do realize that you're arguing against the only guy agreeing with you here? Shmogie's post was an attempt at defending your points. And now you're trying to shoot even that down?

Stop being such a Poe.
 

Jose Fly

Fisker of men
Stop being such a Poe.
(assuming @dad1 isn't trolling)

Every once in a while in these debates, I wonder if the Christian creationists truly believe they are representing their faith in a positive manner. With all the childishness, name calling, evasion, flat-out dishonesty, denialism, etc., do they really think such behaviors will cause people to think to themselves "Now there's a faith I want to be a part of"?

From what I can tell, they actually do think so. More's the pity......
 

Polymath257

Think & Care
Staff member
Premium Member
(assuming @dad1 isn't trolling)

Every once in a while in these debates, I wonder if the Christian creationists truly believe they are representing their faith in a positive manner. With all the childishness, name calling, evasion, flat-out dishonesty, denialism, etc., do they really think such behaviors will cause people to think to themselves "Now there's a faith I want to be a part of"?

From what I can tell, they actually do think so. More's the pity......

The original version of Poe's law says that it is impossible to tell the difference between a troll and an 'honest' creationist. The terminology evolved so that a Poe is a type of troll. But the basic law still holds: there is no position too extreme for a creationist to actually adopt. In this very thread we have seen a version of the Omphalos argument. it really doesn't get much more bizarre than that.
 

dad1

Active Member
I've noticed that. It's the reason i'm not arguing your original claims at all. It is unnecessary. You can't support your claims at all.
Easy to show I can't. I say science cannot prove the state of the past. Start anytime.
I'm merely showing your irrational behavior and multiple contradictions. Here you once again argue your own claims.
Blather.

You do realize that you're arguing against the only guy agreeing with you here? Shmogie's post was an attempt at defending your points. And now you're trying to shoot even that down?
With friends like this who needs enemies I guess.

Stop being such a Poe.
Start doing something other than mindless sniping and duplicitous droning.
 

Darkstorn

This shows how unique i am.
Easy to show I can't. I say science cannot prove the state of the past. Start anytime.

Um. You want me to show to you that you haven't supported your claims? Or why else are you replying like this to the text you quoted?

How exactly am i to show you something that doesn't exist? I.E you supporting your claims. You never supported your claims. The evidence for this is this thread, and your own comments. I can't show it beyond this.

But i know you'll demand something unreasonable. Hell, i feel your very premise here is unreasonable.

"I say science cannot prove the state of the past" for example still remains unsupported. You merely claimed it. You cannot prove that statement. THAT is my proof.

Start doing something other than mindless sniping and duplicitous droning.

I feel you've lost the right to call anyone "mindless."
 

gnostic

The Lost One
Keep us posted on all that existed or not in a past you know nothing about eh? We look to you.
You were there?
Ok, we will use an example, where Genesis is wrong about history.

Now I don't know which bible you read, but I assuming you reading an English translation, like the KJV, or something more modern, like NASB, NIV or NRSV, which are all Old Testament were mostly translated from the Hebrew Masoretic Text, and supplemented with Greek Septuagint. Only the Greek Orthodox Church don't rely on the Masoretic Text at all.

Based on most modern English translations, you can calculate the Old Testament, by counting the reigns of kings of Judah, backwards from the fall of Jerusalem (587 or 586 BCE), to the beginning of king Solomon's reign about 970 BCE. From 1 Kings 6:1, we would use 480 years, to get the date of the freed Israelites leaving Egypt, and Exodus 12:40-41, to get the date of Abraham's covenant in Genesis 15, when Abraham was 85 (we know this because Abraham was 86 when Ishmael was born). And we can calculate all the years of generations of patriarchs, from Adam to Abraham with Genesis 5 & 11. And lastly, we know that Noah was 600 when he boarded the Ark

From all these dates, we can get the date that Genesis Flood would have occurred in 2340 BCE.

Now the example is this:

According to Genesis 10:6, Egypt did exist until after Ham became father of "Mizraim" in KJV translation, "Egypt" in most more modern English translations.

Genesis 10:6 KJV said:
And the sons of Ham; Cush, and Mizraim, and Phut, and Canaan.
Genesis 10:6 NRSV said:
6 The descendants of Ham: Cush, Egypt, Put, and Canaan.

There are no years or age given in this chapters, and we can only assume that the order of names given to Ham's sons are the order they were born, eg assuming Mizraim/Egypt was Ham's 2nd eldest son, after Cush.

We are also assuming that no one else survive the Flood in Genesis 7 & 8, other than Noah and his 3 sons, and their wives (hence a total of 8 survivors).

Now one person cannot make a nation, so if there was truly a Flood, as Genesis 6 to 10 say, then it would take many generations for Egypt to be a nation. So Mizraim/Egypt would have to reach adulthood, before becoming father to his sons and daughters, and his children would have to reach adulthood, before they became parents of new generations, and so on.

But how much generations are needed to make a nation?

And how big a population would be needed to become a nation?

  • 10 people? No, that's highly unlikely. It would be more like a tiny village than a nation.
  • 100 people? Again, no. That size would make a clan, but not a nation. 100 people would either be modest village or tiny town, but certainly not a nation. In 3 to 4 generations, you could reach this population.
  • 1000 people? Again, no. It is still not enough people to be called a nation; this population would possibly be suitable for a moderate town or a tiny city, but not a nation.
  • 10,000? That's more possible than all of the above. But we are talking about Egypt that would cover the northern length of the Nile (Nile Delta to southern town of Elephantine, hence a whole region, and not a single city).
For Mizraim or Egypt to create a nation, it would require a number of generations and tens of thousands of people. And all that will take time, like a couple of centuries, and number of generations, especially, if you are only starting with two people, eg Mizraim/Egypt and his unnamed wife.

And according to Genesis 10:13-14, Mizraim/Egypt only had 7 sons. That still not enough to become a nation called Egypt.

If the Flood did happen in 2340 BCE, and Egypt only exist afterwards, then it would take a long time for Egypt to become a nation.

But according to history and archaeology, there was no global flood. Egypt predated 2340 BCE, as a civilisation and as a culture.

If different people lived in Egypt in pre-Flood, then you would expect the "old" population to replace the "new" (eg the biblical descendants of Mizraim/Egypt), so there would be discontinuity in that land, disruption of civilisation and change in cultures, between the old and new.

There was no such disruption or changes, caused by a natural disaster, like the scale of Genesis Flood.

But historically and archaeologically there are no sign of changes. The arts from 24th century to later time, are no different to 31st to 24th centuries BCE.

Instead, Egyptians continued to build pyramids, still created the same types of artwork, and still use the same hieroglyphs and hieratic writings.

2340 BCE would be in the reign of 1st king of the 6th dynasty, Teti (reign 2345 – 2333 BCE) who has pyramid built in Saqqara, just like his son and 2nd successor Pepi I (reign 2331 – 2287 BCE) and his predecessor, the last king of the 5th dynasty, Unas (reign 2375 – 2345 BCE). (Note that Userkare actually ruled between Teti and Pepi I, in 2333 to 2331 BCE, but his reign was too short to have a pyramid built for himself.

If the Flood had occurred, Teti should have died, and he would have no successors. But not only Unas, Teti and Pepi I have their names in their respective pyramids in Saqqara, their names are listed in the Abydos King List (AKL).

The AKL contained the names of kings from the 1st king of 1st dynasty (Menes or Narmer, flourished in 31st century BCE) to the 2nd king of the 19th dynasty (Seti, 1290–1279 BCE).

There are king lists, such as the Turin King List (TKL) and Karnak King List (KKL), where Unas' name is missing in the KKL.

These king lists, along with the names inscribed in their pyramids are evidences for these kings.

(Note that Egyptians only started building pyramids, with the Step Pyramid in Saqqara being the first, for Djoser (reign 2686 - 2649 BCE), the founder of the 3rd dynasty. Before Djoser, tombs were in the form of "mastaba".)

If Flood did occurred in 2340 BCE, and Mizraim/Egypt was the first, then there would be no earlier rulers and dynasties of Egypt, there would be no great pyramid of Giza (Pyramid of Khufu, reign 2589 – 2566 BCE, the 2nd monarch of the 4th dynasty).

There shouldn't be Egyptian history before 2340 BCE, if Genesis Flood was true.

You know nothing about history, dad1.
 

dad1

Active Member
Um. You want me to show to you that you haven't supported your claims? Or why else are you replying like this to the text you quoted?
No, we want anyone that makes science claims to both have some idea what they are talking about, and be able to support them.
How exactly am i to show you something that doesn't exist?
Don't worry about what doesn't exist, just prove what you claim existed did exist!
I.E you supporting your claims. You never supported your claims.
I have no science claims that the past was any which way, you do!

The evidence for this is this thread, and your own comments. I can't show it beyond this.
Vague nonsense.
But i know you'll demand something unreasonable. Hell, i feel your very premise here is unreasonable.
Get a grip, the premise of past models is using the present as the key to the past. If you claim that is correct and reasonable let's see you really solidly evidence that the past was indeed the same. You can't. All that is left is being honest enough to admit you re defeated.
"I say science cannot prove the state of the past" for example still remains unsupported.
If you or anyone else had done that you might have a point. Focus.
You still have the opportunity to give it an honest try.
 

Darkstorn

This shows how unique i am.
dad1 said:
No, we want anyone that makes science claims to both have some idea what they are talking about, and be able to support them.

The issue was still your unsupported claims, as per my previous post. I have made no other arguments. Here's how it went down:

dad1 said:
No ability is needed to argue against something that you can't support.

Darkstorn said:
You can't support your claims at all.

dad1 said:
Easy to show I can't. I say science cannot prove the state of the past. Start anytime.

Darkstorn said:
"I say science cannot prove the state of the past" for example still remains unsupported.

dad1 said:
No, we want anyone that makes science claims to both have some idea what they are talking about, and be able to support them.

You made scientific claims in your OP:

Some modern man like footprints have been found. This could easily be pre flood man prints. Man would have evolved since the flood, so changes in heel or feet could be expected. Yet science fantasizes only about some supposed ancestor to man. Besides showing their stories were wrong, it shows they have a very limited pool to draw water from intellectually.

Fossil footprints challenge established theories of human evolution

https://www.sciencedaily.com/releases/2017/08/170831134221.htm

First, you need to support them. Then you need to read your own link enough to understand that it's actually arguing against what you're trying to achieve here.

If you or anyone else had done that you might have a point. Focus.
You still have the opportunity to give it an honest try.

Focus yourself, you made the OP. It is your job to support your claims first before we even have to begin bothering to entertain the notion that we must even refute your inane understanding of reality. Only when you have finally supported your claims, would there be anything of substance to refute. Right now it's basically like trash.

You provided absolutely no support for your claims, no evidence, and no proof. Therefore it can be dismissed without support, evidence or proof. Basic debating.

You'll find out that YOU have an opportunity to give this whole debate a honest try. Right now it feels like you're going "la la la la la i'm not listening" and your only argument of substance is trying to attack your opposition with insults.

And i repeat it here, even though it's futile since you never got it the first time. Or the second. I am not arguing any of your claims in this thread. I am not arguing for origin sciences as you put it. I AM arguing about your utter disability to argue your own case effectively. You are quite literally making a fool of yourself.

And do note: You making any claims about science falls within the realm of "science claims." You WILL need to support that statement as well.
 

dad1

Active Member
Ok, we will use an example, where Genesis is wrong about history.

Now I don't know which bible you read, but I assuming you reading an English translation, like the KJV, or something more modern, like NASB, NIV or NRSV, which are all Old Testament were mostly translated from the Hebrew Masoretic Text, and supplemented with Greek Septuagint. Only the Greek Orthodox Church don't rely on the Masoretic Text at all.

Based on most modern English translations, you can calculate the Old Testament, by counting the reigns of kings of Judah, backwards from the fall of Jerusalem (587 or 586 BCE), to the beginning of king Solomon's reign about 970 BCE. From 1 Kings 6:1, we would use 480 years, to get the date of the freed Israelites leaving Egypt, and Exodus 12:40-41, to get the date of Abraham's covenant in Genesis 15, when Abraham was 85 (we know this because Abraham was 86 when Ishmael was born). And we can calculate all the years of generations of patriarchs, from Adam to Abraham with Genesis 5 & 11. And lastly, we know that Noah was 600 when he boarded the Ark

From all these dates, we can get the date that Genesis Flood would have occurred in 2340 BCE.

Now the example is this:

According to Genesis 10:6, Egypt did exist until after Ham became father of "Mizraim" in KJV translation, "Egypt" in most more modern English translations.




There are no years or age given in this chapters, and we can only assume that the order of names given to Ham's sons are the order they were born, eg assuming Mizraim/Egypt was Ham's 2nd eldest son, after Cush.

We are also assuming that no one else survive the Flood in Genesis 7 & 8, other than Noah and his 3 sons, and their wives (hence a total of 8 survivors).

Now one person cannot make a nation, so if there was truly a Flood, as Genesis 6 to 10 say, then it would take many generations for Egypt to be a nation.
No. In the former nature there was rapid re-population. Reproduction could be very fast in that day.



So Mizraim/Egypt would have to reach adulthood, before becoming father to his sons and daughters, and his children would have to reach adulthood, before they became parents of new generations, and so on.
Nope. People may have had babies at 10 for all we know then, and gestation could have been 3 rather than 9 months as now, etc. You assume that the present nature existed.
But how much generations are needed to make a nation?
Hey, how many people even were needed to be a 'nation' in that day!

And how big a population would be needed to become a nation?

  • 10 people? No, that's highly unlikely. It would be more like a tiny village than a nation.
  • 100 people? Again, no. That size would make a clan, but not a nation. 100 people would either be modest village or tiny town, but certainly not a nation. In 3 to 4 generations, you could reach this population.
  • 1000 people? Again, no. It is still not enough people to be called a nation; this population would possibly be suitable for a moderate town or a tiny city, but not a nation.
  • 10,000? That's more possible than all of the above. But we are talking about Egypt that would cover the northern length of the Nile (Nile Delta to southern town of Elephantine, hence a whole region, and not a single city).
We don't know. I would assume hundreds.
For Mizraim
or Egypt to create a nation, it would require a number of generations and tens of thousands of people. And all that will take time, like a couple of centuries, and number of generations, especially, if you are only starting with two people, eg Mizraim/Egypt and his unnamed wife.
Nah. People had concubines and all sorts of things back then. What happened in Egypt...stays in Egypt.
And according to Genesis 10:13-14, Mizraim/Egypt only had 7 sons. That still not enough to become a nation called Egypt.
False. Women were not counted, so if each son had a few wives or even one wife, there could be lots and lots of kids real fast at the time. Possibly the incidence of sextuplets and twins etc would be real real high. Basically you don't know.

If the Flood did happen in 2340 BCE, and Egypt only exist afterwards, then it would take a long time for Egypt to become a nation.
I allow for a margin of interpretive error of a few hundred years. That alone would do it! Add the planned rapid reproduction of God in that time after the flood, as well as the amazingly different state in the past, and there is no problem.
But according to history and archaeology, there was no global flood.
History started after the flood! Archaeology looks at layers that are post flood only! What would we expect other than this!?


Egypt predated 2340 BCE, as a civilisation and as a culture.
Your dates are wrong and solely based on assuming a same state past. The error curve is the dates gets wildly wrong very fast as we near the time of the nature change.

There was no such disruption or changes, caused by a natural disaster, like the scale of Genesis Flood.
All post flood.
But historically and archaeologically there are no sign of changes. The arts from 24th century to later time, are no different to 31st to 24th centuries BCE.
All post flood, so why would it? Yet early Sumer records long lifespans and Egypt recorded spirits living with man. I also notice that the poor post flood Egypt folks had to resort to almost drawing pictures to communicate! Just as expected after Babel! With the now shorter lifespans they also made lots of tombs!
Instead, Egyptians continued to build pyramids, still created the same types of artwork, and still use the same hieroglyphs and hieratic writings.
The huge stones make sense more if the former state was in place, and maybe there was another force that counteracted gravity, at least at times, or something! Who knows? They continued to use the hieroglyphics, but possibly many meanings changed over time.
2340 BCE would be in the reign of 1st king of the 6th dynasty, Teti (reign 2345 – 2333 BCE) who has pyramid built in Saqqara, just like his son and 2nd successor Pepi I (reign 2331 – 2287 BCE) and his predecessor, the last king of the 5th dynasty, Unas (reign 2375 – 2345 BCE). (Note that Userkare actually ruled between Teti and Pepi I, in 2333 to 2331 BCE, but his reign was too short to have a pyramid built for himself.
As above, the dates are wrong, It is all radioactive decay based dating! I hope you bring up the king lists, that would be a laugh for dating.

There are king lists, such as the Turin King List (TKL) and Karnak King List (KKL), where Unas' name is missing in the KKL.
Notice in one king list that they list spirits as the first kings? Want to stand behind that?
These king lists, along with the names inscribed in their pyramids are evidences for these kings.
I would not doubt kings did live. Now whether some were at the same time, or some were remembered from before the flood and added, or..whatever we don't know. We do know your dates are wrong.
(Note that Egyptians only started building pyramids, with the Step Pyramid in Saqqara being the first, for Djoser (reign 2686 - 2649 BCE), the founder of the 3rd dynasty. Before Djoser, tombs were in the form of "mastaba".)
Dates = wrong.


Hoo ha
 
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