You're not getting it.
I agree with that definition. The problem here is what actually constitutes being moral or immoral. Right or wrong. Goodness or badness. What is the difference between those things. How do you define good and bad? How do you distinguish between them.
That's what this is about. How to tell the difference. Not how many synonyms can I list.
I say the difference between them is the how they harm or benefit the overall well-being -in the broadest sense- of sentient creatures and / or groups / societies.
Yes, I can agree with that. What is good or bad behavior is related to how that behavior causes harm or benefit to the overall well-being -in the broadest sense- of sentient creatures and / or groups / societies.
So you agree with the standard I'm proposing?
Yes, as I said above.
When I refer to well-being, I'm talking about the full package. Psychology included.
And what I meant with the health/sick analogy is not that it's the same (as if "unhappiness" is caused by a virus or something lol), but rather in the sense of we can tell the difference - regardless of underlying causes.
Expression and body language informs us in both cases that there is suffering going on.
You mostly can tell the difference between a happy and an unhappy person, let alone a deeply depressed one. Psychological suffering is for the most part quite recognizable.
So do you think there is something morally wrong with a person being unhappy?
Do you connect psychological suffering with morality? Is a depressed person immoral because they suffer?
Yes, I agree.
At which point in these arguments do you need to refer to these Messenger(s) of God(s) to come to those conclusions?
I don't need to refer to them to come to these conclusions.
I just gave you one. And you even acknowledged that it's the standard you use yourself also.
Well-being = good
suffering = bad
From there, you can have an objective reasoned morality.
No, I did not say that is the 'standard' that I use.
I said:
My standard of measurement for moral behavior is what the Messengers revealed.
Goodness of character or right behavior can reduce suffering for individuals and society.
Wrong behavior or badness of character increases suffering for individuals and society.
Goodness of character or right behavior increases well-being for individuals and society.
Wrong behavior or badness of character reduces well-being for individuals and society.
No, I do not agree with:
Well-being = good
suffering = bad
Not only is that overly simplistic, it is saying that a person is 'bad' because they are suffering and 'good' because they are happy, and I do not believe happiness and suffering have anything to do with morality.
Good character reduces suffering and increases well-being, and bad character increases suffering and decreases well-being, but a moral person with good character can suffer as much as an immoral person with bad character, and an immoral person with bad character can have as much well-being as much as a moral person with good character.
Because we can distinguish suffering from well-being, as you also seem to agree to, we can say that there are right and wrong answers to moral questions. And whether it's right or wrong will not be determined by our mere subjective opinions. It will instead be determined by as objective as can be facts that distinguish well-being from suffering.
It will be determined by as objective as can be facts that distinguish right from wrong, as revealed in religion and set down in courts of law.
Hitting someone in the face with a bat for no reason, is always going to be bad. Saying it is moral behavior is a demonstrably wrong answer.
And I don't require appeal to any gods or whatever to come to that objective conclusion.
So how is a religion or appeal to gods or messengers required exactly?
Religion is not required to know that a person causing harm to another person is always wrong, but that has been set down by religion throughout the ages.
Then what does?
Tell me, what if the adultery act was with mutual consent?
What if it doesn't cause any suffering at all and was planned and agreed upon by all parties involved?
Would it still be immoral?
If yes: explain why.
Yes, it would still be immoral because that was set down in the Law of God.
I'm sure the one being killed doesn't enjoy being killed.
Nor does the spouse being cheated on enjoy being cheated upon.
The murdered and all his/her loved-ones would have
As would the spouse who is cheated on suffer.
Every human has standards. Except - maybe - extreme cases of psychopathy / sociopathy.
Sure, everyone has standards, but they are all different, unless they follow the standards of a religion.
I have yet to see you require the invocation of such to make a moral point.
Every example you gave so far where you made a moral argument to judge something good or bad, you used the secular standard of well-being / suffering to distinguish between right and wrong behavior.
Show me an example where you can't get to a proper conclusion using the secular standard, but where you can using an appeal to supposed divine authority.
The secular standard of good and bad was derived from the religious standard, and courts of law do not use well-being / suffering to distinguish between right and wrong behavior.
The secular standard IS the religious standard, and it goes all the way back to the Ten Commandments.
In case you have not noticed,
84 percent of the world population has a faith.