Name of the Lord

[savagewind]

Good thing that that isn't what the name means in the Torah text.

I would need to read it all again, which I probably am not going to do, to find everywhere God is called הוה‬ and then to notice if it is a scripture that has The God acting human. For instance, taking something that belongs to someone else or to order the killing of someone.

 

[roger1440]

God's name is known by what he has done, will do and doing.

 

[savagewind]

God's name is known by what he has done, will do and doing.

OMG! Yes, yes! That is it.

One down. 7.442 billion to go. I mean, two down. LOL

 

[savagewind]

I realize that other people know God's Name means what all the souls respect or not about God.
Which includes the Heavenly Host. I am sure.

 

[WalterTrull]

mind is the builder, creator.

So mind is...

 

[Fool]

A "Lord" is "what" Jehovah is.....but his name identifies "who" Jehovah is. Like the title "President" isn't a man's name, but a description of the office he holds. He still has a personal name that is used when he is spoken about.

Many people in the Bible were addressed as "Lord", not just God and Jesus. It isn't just a religious title.

"The Greek and Hebrew words rendered “lord” (or such related terms as “sir,” “owner,” “master”) are used with reference to Jehovah God (Eze 3:11), Jesus Christ (Mt 7:21), one of the elders seen by John in vision (Re 7:13, 14), angels (Ge 19:1, 2; Da 12:8), men (1Sa 25:24; Ac 16:16, 19, 30), and false deities (1Co 8:5). Often the designation “lord” denotes one who has ownership or authority and power over persons or things. (Ge 24:9; 42:30; 45:8, 9; 1Ki 16:24; Lu 19:33; Ac 25:26; Eph 6:5) This title was applied by Sarah to her husband (Ge 18:12), by children to their fathers (Ge 31:35; Mt 21:28, 29), and by a younger brother to his older brother (Ge 32:5, 6). It appears as a title of respect addressed to prominent persons, public officials, prophets, and kings. (Ge 23:6; 42:10; Nu 11:28; 2Sa 1:10; 2Ki 8:10-12; Mt 27:63) When used in addressing strangers, “lord,” or “sir,” served as a title of courtesy.—Joh 12:21; 20:15; Ac 16:30."
Lord — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY



According to Strongs, "God" 'elahh in Aramaic corresponds with 'elowahh in Hebrew. Both meaning "God" or "god"....That scripture does not have the tetragrammaton but is simply praising the name of God, which is יְהֹוָ֞ה (YHWH). So....what is your point?



Yes, it was an answer to the question Moses posed in verse 14. If you see in the Hebrew, "The Lord God of your forefathers" is יְהֹוָ֞ה (YHWH, Yahweh, Jehovah)



"The Hebrew word ʼelo·himʹ (gods) appears to be from a root meaning “be strong.” ʼElo·himʹ is the plural of ʼelohʹah (god). Sometimes this plural refers to a number of gods (Ge 31:30, 32; 35:2), but more often it is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. ʼElo·himʹ is used in the Scriptures with reference to Jehovah himself, to angels, to idol gods (singular and plural), and to men.

When applying to Jehovah, ʼElo·himʹ is used as a plural of majesty, dignity, or excellence. (Ge 1:1)"
God — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY

I am not even sure what it is you are arguing....?

so why not use the term elohim as the name? its in exodus 3:15 right after the comma; which implies the conjunction 'and'.

when moses ask who he says sent him he isn't told jehovah, or the lord sent him. he tells moses to say, I AM sent me.

i am is lord, god, everything, and anything.

you are to tell them I AM. he didn't say you are to tell them jehovah, or elohim, or some other.

the name of names wasn't jehovah

Shem HaMephorash - Wikipedia


The Unspeakable Name of God in Kabbalah

 

[Fool]

Judaism looks at the initial question and (as Jews are won't to do) answers with a question: what do you mean by "name"?

We view God as a being that does not have a personal name because He isn't a person. He has labels for qualities and we have ways of referring to aspects of His being. One very telling label is "ein sof" or "infinite." Does that mean that "infinite" is God's 'name'? No, it means that one attribute of God is that He is infinite so when we invoke that idea we do so by citing that trait. The four letter name, the 42 letter name, the 72 letter name, or any of the others is just one way to refer to a concept that transcends names. In some ways of thinking, any combination of Hebrew letters is a name of God and, as was earlier stated, the combination of letters that makes up the Torah text can be thought of as one really long name of God.
a resource
Hashem: The Name

the problem seems to be that this I AM, exodus 3:14, takes no exclusive form but takes all forms inclusively. this is suggested in genesis 1:1-2

ha YAH

 

[Ponder This]

What is the name of the lord from the abrahamic perspective?

a name can be something that you call someone, someplace, or something, but the name of the lord can also refer to the authority, reputation, or sake of the lord. For example, "Stop in the Name of Love" uses the phrase "in the name of love" to indicate "for the sake of". Also, if the someone invokes the "name of the king" in enforcing the pronouncements of the king, whether it be the law of the king or actions taken elsewhere of war or exploration, it means "by the authority" or "for the sake of" the king and his reputation, what he represents.

Speaking in the Name of God means speaking with authority, on His behalf, for his sake, and/or such. Taking the Lord's Name in vain could be to speak without authority or without regard to (not for the sake of) God. Commonly, if someone were speaking in the Name of the Lord, they might invoke the Name of the Lord, or the Name of God directly as in saying, "God says..." or "According to God, ...", or perhaps as an epithet.

One of the important things to note is that the prophets of the Old Testament are regarded as speaking in the Name of God. Who shall Moses say sent him? If Moses says a name (as in a proper noun denoting a person, such as "Fred"), then anybody could take the name of "Fred" and be called "Fred". People take the name of Krishna, Jesus, Mohammed, George, etc., etc. But people can't take the name of God as their name. So he is told "i am that i am" has sent him. Moses is being sent to act in God's Name - not to show up on Pharaoh's doorstep saying, "Fred sent me."

 

[Fool]

So mind is...

mind is everything. mind is intrinsic in all forms and even the formless. mind is formless.

i am is intrinsic in all things, all forms, and in the formless which it is.

 

[Fool]

a name can be something that you call someone, someplace, or something, but the name of the lord can also refer to the authority, reputation, or sake of the lord. For example, "Stop in the Name of Love" uses the phrase "in the name of love" to indicate "for the sake of". Also, if the someone invokes the "name of the king" in enforcing the pronouncements of the king, whether it be the law of the king or actions taken elsewhere of war or exploration, it means "by the authority" or "for the sake of" the king and his reputation, what he represents.

Speaking in the Name of God means speaking with authority, on His behalf, for his sake, and/or such. Taking the Lord's Name in vain could be to speak without authority or without regard to (not for the sake of) God. Commonly, if someone were speaking in the Name of the Lord, they might invoke the Name of the Lord, or the Name of God directly as in saying, "God says..." or "According to God, ...", or perhaps as an epithet.

One of the important things to note is that the prophets of the Old Testament are regarded as speaking in the Name of God. Who shall Moses say sent him? If Moses says a name (as in a proper noun denoting a person, such as "Fred"), then anybody could take the name of "Fred" and be called "Fred". People take the name of Krishna, Jesus, Mohammed, George, etc., etc. But people can't take the name of God as their name. So he is told "i am that i am" has sent him. Moses is being sent to act in God's Name - not to show up on Pharaoh's doorstep saying, "Fred sent me."

thanks for the idea for another thread

 

[rosends]

the problem seems to be that this I AM, exodus 3:14, takes no exclusive form but takes all forms inclusively. this is suggested in genesis 1:1-2

ha YAH

There is no "I am" in 3:14. There is also no hayah in Gen 1:1-2.

 

[Fool]

There is no "I am" in 3:14. There is also no hayah in Gen 1:1-2.

fyi, one is future tense the other present continuous tense in reference to I, or the infinite I

to be verb conjugation | English Conjugation

There is no "I am" in 3:14. There is also no hayah in Gen 1:1-2.

suggested in Gen 1:1-2 isn't a literal. its implied.


is this an acceptable translation?

Hebrew - English Bible / Mechon-Mamre

or this one

Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)

so what does exodus 3:14 say in "your" translation from hebrew to english vs a myriad number of others, or if you can direct me to a link, that would be appreciative.


to be verb conjugation | English Conjugation

 

[roger1440]

There is no "I am" in 3:14. There is also no hayah in Gen 1:1-2.

What does exodus 3:14 say? In English.

 

[rosends]

fyi, one is future tense the other present continuous tense in reference to I, or the infinite I

to be verb conjugation | English Conjugation

The text reads "ehyeh" which means "I will be". As you say, there are different tenses. Therefore, claiming that one is there while actually another one is would be wrong. Hebrew actually has no "I am" construction for its "to be" verb. The Judaica Press (chabad) traqnslation shows this:

"God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'""

suggested in Gen 1:1-2 isn't a literal. its implied.

What exactly is suggested? In the 2 verses, there is one instance of the to be verb. In verse 2, the text reads "v'ha'aretz hayta..." and the earth was, using the feminine, past tense form of the to be verb. Berei**** - Genesis - Chapter 1 (Parshah Berei****)

and here is the direct link to the above 3:14 text in English Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)

Can you show me where the text uses a present continuous tense?

 

[rosends]

What does exodus 3:14 say? In English.

I will be that which I will be. The Hebrew verb form is "ehyeh." The 4 letter name of God is absent from the verse.

 

[Deeje]

so why not use the term elohim as the name? its in exodus 3:15 right after the comma; which implies the conjunction 'and'.

when moses ask who he says sent him he isn't told jehovah, or the lord sent him. he tells moses to say, I AM sent me.

i am is lord, god, everything, and anything.

Exodus 3:15....
"And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation. "
טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:
Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)
The LORD GOD is יְהֹוָ֞ה.....Yehovah....Jehovah (English)

As rosends has mentioned...there is no "I AM" in Exodus 3:14 in Hebrew. Christendom made that up to push their trinity. So that when Jesus said "I am" in John 8:58, they could say..."see Jesus is claiming to be God"! He wasn't doing anything of the sort....he was answering a question about his age...saying that he existed before Abraham.....before he came to the earth as a human savior.

you are to tell them I AM. he didn't say you are to tell them jehovah, or elohim, or some other.

the name of names wasn't jehovah

Yes it was...how much proof do you need?

Here it is from Jewish sources....

Nehemia Gordon

 

[Fool]

The text reads "ehyeh" which means "I will be". As you say, there are different tenses. Therefore, claiming that one is there while actually another one is would be wrong. Hebrew actually has no "I am" construction for its "to be" verb. The Judaica Press (chabad) traqnslation shows this:

"God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'""

so hebrew doesn't have a present continuous tense form? in exodus 3:14 i will be is a future tense, while the other present continuous tense implies that it occurred in the past, is occurring and will continue to occur, or is not finished occurring. future tense implies it is not yet occurred but will occur. something that is always becoming is not exclusively future, nor exlusively past but obviously infinitely now.

What exactly is suggested? In the 2 verses, there is one instance of the to be verb. In verse 2, the text reads "v'ha'aretz hayta..." and the earth was, using the feminine, past tense form of the to be verb. Berei**** - Genesis - Chapter 1 (Parshah Berei****)

and here is the direct link to the above 3:14 text in English Shemot - Exodus - Chapter 3 (Parshah Shemot)

Can you show me where the text uses a present continuous tense?

the implication is that all things being are from the becoming and yet are not exclusively the form, manifestation of the becoming one . becoming isn't exclusive to a form but all forms are becoming of the formless because it is constantly becoming.

 

[Fool]

I will be that which I will be. The Hebrew verb form is "ehyeh." The 4 letter name of God is absent from the verse.

in exodus 3:13 moses ask for the name. god gives that name in 3:14 that he is to use. he doesn't tell him to use lord, jehovah. he tells him specifically what to use, to say.



13And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"

יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:

14God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"

ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:


he did not tell them to call him jehovah, lord. he did not tell moses to say lord, jehovah, or god, elohim.

he said my name is ehyeh. ehyeh was to be used for those who were sent, not the word lord, jehovha.

exodus 3:15 says god said further that you are to say the lord god of your fathers etc., etc., etc., the name is given in exodus 3:14 and referenced to again from exodus 3:15.

 

[Deeje]

he did not tell them to call him jehovah, lord. he did not tell moses to say lord, jehovah, or god, elohim.

he said my name is ehyeh. ehyeh was to be used for those who were sent, not the word lord, jehovha.

Let's try that again.....

The two verses in Exodus 3:14-15 together so that you can see what is being made clear to you....

God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"
ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:

And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.
וַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

God has revealed both his name AND its meaning to Moses. Yehovah (Jehovah) means "I Will Be What I Will Be".

Can it get any clearer than that?

 

[Fool]

Let's try that again.....

The two verses in Exodus 3:14-15 together so that you can see what is being made clear to you....

God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"
ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:

And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.
וַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

God has revealed both his name AND its meaning to Moses. Yehovah (Jehovah) means "I Will Be What I Will Be".

Can it get any clearer than that?

no where in those 2 verses does moses ask for a definition, or meaning. does god tells him he will explain the name. moses asks for a name. god gives it.

in exodus 3:15 god tells moses to say all of the following...................or further say

'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.'

טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:


that isn't a name. that is information of his relationship to them and their ancestors and then he tells moses that this is the name for all generation.


my name forever is in exodus 3:14. prior to the israelites the egyptians knew it and the zoroastrians, hindus, all knew it. it was nothing new to the ancestors even if it was something new to the israelites


I AM or I WILL BE is the name that identifies the one who is sent as a prophet to the people, not jehovah.