Rejecting supernatural hypothesis because there is no prior evidence for the supernatural is circular reasoning.
No it isn't.
Circular reasoning is where you begin with the conclusion you are trying to arrive at. (eg. "The afterlife exists because our soul goes there")
Rejecting unsupported assertions as evidence is not circular reasoning because it relies on accepting evidence, not making unsupported assertions.
It´s impossible to have “prior evidence” is all evidence is rejected by default (because there is no prior evidence)
Claims for the supernatural are not rejected because claims for the supernatural are rejected. They are rejected because they provide no evidence to support them.
Given that you haven presented any conclusive evidence against the “supernatural” the default answer should be agnosticism (perhaps there is supernatural perhaps not, both are realistic possibilities)… rejecting supernatural by default is fallacious .
Bu that's not how it works. We don't assign a 50/50 probability to every event for which there is no certain outcome.
If your ice-cream vanished from your freezer and your flat mate said "It wasn't me, it was the invisible dragon living in the oven" would you be "agnostic" about the actual culprit?
We have incontrovertible, absolute evidence for everything that we have an explanation for, happening by natural processes.
We have no evidence for anything happening by magic.
We don't even have any evidence that magic exists in the first place.
Therefore if the choice for an explanation for an observation is "natural process" or "magic", the most reasonable choice is always "natural process".
Your argument is basically
"Magic exists because if magic existed, it would be the best explanation for stuff that happens by magic".
Not gonna lie, you are getting a D- for that!
there is nothing wrogn about explainig a mystery appealing to an other mystery.
Are you serious? Of course there is!
Is the motion of a car engine best explained by internal combustion, or by invisible engine fairies?
A doctor can conclude that a patient was infected with a virus, even if the origin of that virus remains a mystery…….. Perhaps the Doctor has no idea where the virus came from, nor how did it infected the patient, but he can still conclude that the virus is the most probable explanation .
But if he knows that it is a viral infection, it is not a mystery. However, if the origin of the virus was unknown, he wouldn't claim it was magical.
Also, if an illness is undiagnosed, some kind of infection or reaction, or organ failure, or immune system problem (none of which are mysteries) would be a better explanation than magic.
The point is that there is nothing wrong with “solving” a mystery with another mystery, this happens all the time in science (do you agree with this specific point?)
Could you give an example of a "scientific mystery" has been solved by invoking another "mystery"?