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Nothing Short Of Perfection

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Per Romans: The point of difference has been your claim Paul was writing to Jews and Gentiles. My argument has been the audience of the text were Romans. The text is Greco-Roman. It is thoroughly Hellenistic, demonstrated by the literary structure and rhetoric employed. This indicates who the target audience was. I don’t think this is a complicated or controversial argument. Where the letter was read is not relevant. Who else was in attendance is not relevant. Imagine a sermon in a Church where the Pastor focuses on tax evasion. Those who are in attendance who don’t pay taxes are not the focus of the sermon. It applies to a specific group. If someone in the audience thought the Pastor’s sermon was directed to ten year olds, he would be wrong, regardless if there were ten year olds in the pews.

Paul wrote to one of the following groups:

*intended for Gentiles only

*intended for Jews only

*intended for Jews and Gentiles both

Recall there was an edict to expel Jews from Rome, with no distinction for we Messianic Jews, and that as Messianic Jews returned years after to fellowship with Gentile believers, there was displacement and discomfort. Many scholars believe Romans was written to address this for BOTH the Jews and Christians who would read and hear Paul’s letter.

  1. Per Matt 24:13: You keep focusing in eschatology. This is a mistake. It isn’t relevant to the topic. I think you’ve forgotten what the point originally was. Your original position was that man is totally dependent. There is nothing he can do in regard to his salvation. I presented Matt 24: 13 as a simply counter example.
“But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”.


The verse indicates a person who does a thing (endure) shall be saved. On a basic level there is a Subject A who does thing B with positive result C. C is dependent on A’s act. The positive result C is indicated as ‘saved’. That is it in a nutshell. Arguing saved doesn’t mean saved, or that saved actually means “saved from physical tribulation” has no substance. The point remains a contradiction to your notion.

There’s a D after your C. Jesus returns to cut short the tribulation, Matthew 24. Let me help you:

He that endures the sufferings of the tribulation, and is still alive when I return to cut it short, I will rescue him from the tribulation personally, and personally end this time of judgment at the rapture!

I think your paraphrase is more like:

You see! Just like every other religion under Heaven, men must do works to show they are good enough to go a perfect Heaven.

Per 1 Peter 2: 5-9: You asked my opinion of the verses, focusing on gender and the meaning of the Greek pronouns used. I think the author of 1 Peter is referring to a group and in the case of verse 9 the attributes of the group taken in toto, not per any individual element of the whole. Why do I believe that? Because that is the way the original Greek speakers understood it and the way Christianity understood it for over 16 Centuries. I gave women not having the priesthood as a simple example. Women were never recognized as priests. The same could be said of children etc. Further, the contrary view is absurd. Under your stance Baha'is would be recognized as priests because their belief in Jesus. I don't think you understand the ramifications of the odd views you have adopted.

I didn’t ask your opinion “of the verses” from the Greek, I asked what in the Greek specifically indicates only men are in the priesthood of all believers, knowing as I do many experts in Greek (personally or by reputation) who say woman are in the priesthood of all believers. I think your answer from the Greek is “Women were never recognized as priests”.

I don’t know much of the Baha’i tenets, but I don’t think they claim they are born again Christians. Please tell me more.

Per the Penal Model: Calvin did invent it. The Penal Atonement Model is not in the scriptures. No one had heard of, contemplated or understood the atonement as the Penal Model prior to Calvin’s invention. It was adopted by certain elements of Reformed Christianity. Those same elements form the backdrop for Modern Evangelicalism. As I explained previously, if something new is introduced, it needs to be justified. Calvin never claimed prophesy or revelation for its creation. Calvin never claimed prophet status. It is simply an atonement theory produced by his understanding of the Bible. Unfortunately, it is irrational. I gave you one simple critique to demonstrate the point. You have no rebuttal. It is also immoral. The Penal Model turns Deity into an evil being or at best an amoral one. In either case, something unworthy of devotion. Why do you hold to an irrational and evil system? Why do you worship an evil god? This all follows from adopting the evil absurdity of Calvin’s Penal Model.

I can accept your concept. Let’s use the hypothesis method. It is true that 1) the penal model is an invention of man 2) is not in the scriptures. If your statements are true, let’s review some verses in the correct light [capital emphases mine]:

Isaiah 53:6 - "the Lord has NOT laid on him the iniquity of us all."

Isaiah 53:12 - "yet he DID NOT bear the sin of many, and DIDN’T make intercession for the transgressors."

Romans 3:25 – “whom God DID NOT set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had NOT passed over the sins that were previously committed, that he might NOT be just and NOT the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus"

2 Corinthians 5:21 - "For our sake he DIDN’T made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."

Galatians 3:13 - "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by NOT becoming a curse for us -- for it is NOT written, Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree."

Hebrews 10 – “For IT IS possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins. Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, But a body You have NOT prepared for Me.”

The basics of Logic: Below is the syllogism:

1) The Bible is perfect
2) Master Billiards is imperfect
3) What is imperfect cannot understand what is perfect
4) Therefore, Master Billiards cannot understand the Bible.

You now claim premise 3 is “illogical”. You give a definition of perfection and then ask why you, being imperfect, cannot understand the definition. This does not relate to premise 3. The question has no value. Premise 3 is not about an inability to understand the definition of a word. It is about what is “ im”-perfect not being able to understand what is perfect. There is a conceptual limitation with the one that does not apply to the other. This is what is indicated with the prefix, meaning ”not” perfect. Imperfection and perfection are conceptually distinct. To claim the one has the same traits as the other is to fail to understand this basic point. The syllogism holds. You stand condemned by your own silly notions.

Because you have deified the Bible and granted it perfection, and therefore on par with God you have cut yourself off from understanding it. None of your assertions about its meaning have value.

You have raised a number of issues.

What is imperfect cannot understand what is perfect

First issue: you might not know what “understand” means, that is, you might not understand “understand”.

Second issue: I understand what “perfect” means and have also accomplished some tasks perfectly before. That is where you say, “Master Billiards is imperfect” is not a true state. I’m not wholly, completely imperfect. I’ve accomplished many tasks perfectly, thought about things perfectly and so on, before.

Third issue: I would never say to any Christian or non-Christian what you wrote to me: “None of your assertions about its [the Bible’s] meaning have value.” Are you going to apologize for that statement?

Fourth issue: Saying the Bible is perfect, after decades of study and long contemplation, isn’t deifying the Bible. Nor is saying any particular thing is perfect deifying that thing. Stop being absurd.

Per faith and works: Saying Faith is not one of the 613 Mosaic Laws is a non sequitur. Faith precedes the Mosaic Law and extends beyond it.

You said I had a false dichotomy with faith and works, where Paul says they are indeed diametrically opposed. You must have forgotten you wrote, “You don’t understand, Paul is referring to the laws of Moses.” Works aren’t grace, and they aren’t faith. “Thou must exhibit grace is not in the Mosaic Law” nor is “Thou must have faith”. Ask a rabbi if you don’t believe me.

  1. Heaven is a utopia.
2. Imperfect people would ruin a utopia (and per YOUR syllogism, cannot even UNDERSTAND a perfect utopia).

3. Imperfect people will not go to Heaven.

I urge you to consider that rejecting my syllogism is surely nothing less than rejecting your earlier ones!

Click to expand...

The above is not a syllogism. They are just three statements.

Allow me to help you, if I may:

Heaven is a perfect place.

All of its citizens are perfect.

No imperfect people are among its citizens.


PS. I asked to confine our topic to one thing. Which thing do you wish to discuss next? Hopefully, my statement just above.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
A legal trade happens, Jesus righteousness for our sins
A heart change occurs where what one love changes
Raised spiritually by the rebirth and renewal of our minds with cooperate with God in a depentent way

That sounds good. Does Jesus save or do we save? Something to think about:

*Jesus saves

*Jesus saves and I also have to...

*Jesus saves but I also must...

No ifs, ands or buts... Jesus saves.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Or put another way:

Do we think of the scriptures like Thanks be to Jesus Christ for saving us or Thanks be to Jesus Christ for showing us the way to save ourselves, so that in Heaven, we can boast upon our accomplishments?
 

whirlingmerc

Well-Known Member
The opposite has happened.. Adam sinned and death entered the world and death touched mankind and even animals and the universe. One man affected all 'in him'
So the opposite is true those 'in Christ' believing in Him for eternal life will live
 

whirlingmerc

Well-Known Member
That sounds good. Does Jesus save or do we save? Something to think about:

*Jesus saves

*Jesus saves and I also have to...

*Jesus saves but I also must...

No ifs, ands or buts... Jesus saves.


Jesus saves.... there is one worker in savlation... a monergism one worker
Onced 'saved' we cooperate with God in sanctification two workers, God and the redeemed who are in a dependent cooperation

There is necessary fruit of salvation, meaning necessary evidence of new life
but its the fruit and not the root
the effect and not the cause
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Billiardsball said : “Matthew 24:13 is clearly “saved physically from the Tribulation.” (post # 351)

Clear replied :
Orontes said : “Per Matt 24:13: “But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”. If you recognize the subject must endure to be saved per the very Bible you claim loyalty to, you have ceded the point. There is no getting around this. It undercuts your notion the subject is simply a passive object.” (post #349)
Billiardsball said : “Matthew 24:13 is clearly “saved physically from the Tribulation.” (post # 351)


This new theory of yours that Matt 24:13 means Christians will be “saved physically” from the difficulties of tribulation is unusual, especially since he tells them in vs 9 that they will NOT be saved physically, but instead, disciples will be delivered up and put to death. The words you’re adding to the biblical text to support your theory do not exist in any known Greek New Testament and are not consistent with the historical use of the text. The text is : “ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος, οὗτος σωθήσεται.” And there are no known significant variants in any greek New Testament text.

The various uses of υπομενω (endure, persist, remain, etc) don’t seem to be associated with the blessing of being “saved physically from tribulation” (though you could offer us an example?). And the concept underlying υπομενω of “bearing up” or “enduring” don’t mean “surviving”.

For example, in the PSI IV, 435.11 papyrus (258-7 b.c.) the use of υπομενω την ληιτο[υργ]ιαν is that of “endure my ministry” such that a faithful choice under difficulty is implied. The only example I could find when choice was not involved refers to an undergoing of “suffering” in relation to a penalty one in Papyrus Oxy II 238.viii (186 a.d.) δικην υπομενουσι την προσηκουσαν. However, even then, the object was not passive, the “suffering” in this case is usually an active choice. Thus the Papyrus Hamb I.22.9 speaks of a man who “suffered” for the sake of his daughter (ος κακα πολλ υπεμεινε μιης επιηρα θυγατρος). It was his choice to endure sacrifice (i.e. suffer) for his daughter.

When used “to Endure” and “to remain” it is not the intransitive and passive “staying behind” that is being implied, but rather a willful persistence in a difficult endeavor despite tribulation and difficulties and suffering that is implied. (This is why it is some times rendered as “patience” in English.) Even when Petr III. 43(3) 14 papyrus (of 115 b.c.) speaks of [ο]υχ υπομενει εκουσιως αποδιδοναι” he is speaking of a person who “persistently” (almost a “stubborn patience…” refuses to do a thing out of choice, resisting pressure to do otherwise. It is a choice to continue in a decision that is implied.

For example, using the base word μενω in the context of place and time, P Hib I 55.6 (of 1 b.c.) uses it in the context of being unable to “remain longer”. This is in reference to making a choice of whether or not to maintain in a position for a time. In P Ryl.II 172.81 its’ usage is in reference to TIME when a lease shall “continue” secured, (μενεις επι τη προγεγραμμενη μισθωσι), that is, it is to remain engaged in an agreed upon contract or covenant. This is very much like it’s use in making the Christian covenant anciently. When used in reference to a person, there is usually a choice and will involved. It can be used for other objects that “maintain” a certain “quality” such as when hay “remains” too long uncut in P Flor (of iii a.d.).

None of the uses apply to someone who survives and is thus rewarded with physical survival or physical “salvation”.

Even the word υπο (the other half of μενω – to “abide” or “remain” in english) typically denotes a cause. That is, something which happens “in consequence of”. That is, ones resolve remains, in consequence of a choice in the case of a person. Examples of its use often show the person one is subject to or subjects themselves to another principles (such as a soldier showing obedience or a person obedient and loyal to a promise or condition). However, in such cases, it represents a responsibility or burden.

In this context the word is even used to describe the “burden” or “load” animals are “laden” with. In Fayr Ostrica 14:2 the use is “one ‘donkey’ laden with barleyυπ[ο] κριθ[ην] ονον ενα” or when “one 'donkey' laden with vegetable seed” was spoke in Meyer Ostrica 81:2 (in 23 a.d.) or in BFU I 248:26 when “a 'donkey' laden with three chores of wine,” and in P Tebt II 423.17 spoke of “the animals laden with hay” (early iii a.d.).

The point is that the context of this use is that of a burden, and in the case of mankind, it represents a promise, or covenant, or deal, or agreement, or burden that either one takes upon ones self or is placed upon one to do or be something. Because it is a willing burden, there is a reward for having taken it upon ones self. That is the pattern of use. Even different words used to describe this early Christian promise, carry similar patterns of description and meaning of continuance and then reward. For example :

In Romans 2:7 - To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: The word here is used for “patient continuance”. It is not continuance but involves patience on the part of the person who is enduring. It is not passive.
Luke 8:15 also renders the same word as “patience” - But that on the good ground are they, which in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, keep it, and bring forth fruit with patience. Even the word “patience” implies more than a passive stasis, but instead implies a quality to the endurance. It is not passive, but requires an acceptance of a situation one must tolerate or suffer without getting angry or upset at external pressures and frustrations.
Even other words used to teach the same concepts are almost synonyms in that they involve both an active involvement of will and endurance. Consider, for example, the use of greek βεβαιος in Hebrews in it’s uses.


Hebrews 3:6 - But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.

Hebrews 3:14 - For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end; Even when no synonym is used, the concept of remaining in a current condition and it’s association with a reward are not only recognizable, but obvious in similarity and meaning.

Hebrews 10:39 - But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.

In an almost equivalent situation to that explained by Orontes, as Jesus speaks to the Apostles, Revelation describes a similar situation where the disciples are to “Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life.” Revelation 2:10

In none of these descriptions is the patient continuance of a religious burden rewarded with a physical release or salvation from "tribulation" or difficulties, (though I think there may be exceptions).

You are welcome to present your theory that Matthew 24:13 actually means "But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved (physically from the Tribulation) instead of what the text actually says, but you will have to provide some additional data and reasoning before this interpretation will make more sense than the typical use and interpretation and expected reward of salvation in the kingdom of God as a result of remaining true to all conditions of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

Clear
σεσιτωειω

Billiardsball replied Post # 360 : "Repeating: This isn’t my theory. Your ignorance of premillennial doctrine is surprising to me. Repeating: The whole of Matthew 24 is parsed into answers to two questions: sign of Jesus’s return and of the end of the age. You don’t know the tribulation ends this church age?

Your comments in # 360 above are irrelevant to your claim in post # 351. If you do not have any relevant data or rational comment to support your claim, then can readers conclude that this is another claim you cannot support? Your addition of words to the text and the resulting interpretation of "salvation" is not biblical in this instance. It is yet another example of Loyalty of Ideology over the text. .

If you speak to an authentic biblicist, they will tell you that an authentic biblicist does not add words to the text to change the meaning, but instead, they take the meaning from the text.

Do you have any data to support your claim that the Matt 24:13 is referring to "being saved physically from the tribulation"?

Clear
σενετωφιω
 
Last edited:

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Jesus saves.... there is one worker in savlation... a monergism one worker
Onced 'saved' we cooperate with God in sanctification two workers, God and the redeemed who are in a dependent cooperation

There is necessary fruit of salvation, meaning necessary evidence of new life
but its the fruit and not the root
the effect and not the cause

I agree, heartily. Thanks.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Billiardsball said : “Matthew 24:13 is clearly “saved physically from the Tribulation.” (post # 351)

Clear replied :

Billiardsball replied Post # 360 : "Repeating: This isn’t my theory. Your ignorance of premillennial doctrine is surprising to me. Repeating: The whole of Matthew 24 is parsed into answers to two questions: sign of Jesus’s return and of the end of the age. You don’t know the tribulation ends this church age?

Your comments in # 360 above are irrelevant to your claim in post # 351. If you do not have any relevant data or rational comment to support your claim, then can readers conclude that this is another claim you cannot support? Your addition of words to the text and the resulting interpretation of "salvation" is not biblical in this instance. It is yet another example of Loyalty of Ideology over the text. .

If you speak to an authentic biblicist, they will tell you that an authentic biblicist does not add words to the text to change the meaning, but instead, they take the meaning from the text.

Do you have any data to support your claim that the Matt 24:13 is referring to "being saved physically from the tribulation"?

Clear
σενετωφιω

Repeating: You are continuing to say this is "my theory". It isn't.

You are lacking knowledge in eschatology. You can find numerous sources online documenting my stance, and from the Greek.

Thanks.
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
Master Billiards,


Per Romans: The General consensus is that the Edict to expel the Jews from Rome occurred a few years before Paul’s Roman Epistle. Whether that is right or no, I don’t think the edict to expel Jews from Rome impacts my position.


Note: I’m not sure how you are using the term Messianic Jews. That movement is typically understood as a 20th Century innovation. At the time Paul was out and about, there was a Jesus Movement within Jewry that would end up becoming Christianity. I think most would consider the formal break into two distinct faiths occurring after the sack of Jerusalem and the mythic Council of Jamnia.


Because of your own statements on Biblical inerrancy and your own imperfection, we can reject all your conclusions about scripture



Per Matt 24:13 "But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”.


Good goods guys; The verse indicates a person who does a thing (endure) shall be saved. On a basic level there is a Subject A who does thing B with positive result C. C is dependent on A’s act. The positive result C is indicated as ‘saved’. That is it in a nutshell. Arguing saved doesn’t mean saved, or that saved actually means “saved from physical tribulation” has no substance. The point remains a contradiction to your notion.

You: There’s a D after your C. Jesus returns to cut short the tribulation


Verse 13 is a standalone statement. It is followed in the next verse about the Gospel being preached in all the world. The text is clear. Matt 24:13 is a simple counter example to your idea man is only a passive object. Further, your 'saved from physical tribulation' notion is extra textual. You've added to the Bible.

Because of your own statements on Biblical inerrancy and your own imperfection, we can reject all your conclusions about scripture


Per 1 Peter 2: 5-9
: You asked me:

Do you believe that men only applies to the whole passage or just that one fragment?
Do you have something you’d like to share from the Greek that explains “You” is masculine only?


You seem to take issue with my base reply. I’ll put it another way. There is no gender specific second person plural in Koine Greek, so your question turns on a misunderstanding of the language. My point has been that priesthood both with Judaism at the time, the compliers of the New Testament and the subsequent Christian Tradition that developed for basically the next 20 Centuries understood Priesthood as male. It’s fine if you disagree with that, but it simply means you are at odds with the roots of Christianity and its Tradition.

Because of your own statements on in Biblical inerrancy and your own imperfection, we can reject all your conclusions about scripture


Per the Penal Model: citing random Bible verses that all Christians recognize as scriptures, but that the vast bulk of whom do not see any tie to the Penal Model does not help your cause. The base criticism remains: Calvin’s invention of the Penal Model is unjust, immoral and irrational. You have never been able to answer even the simplest criticism I put forward. This means your belief in it is irrational. It also means you believe in and worship in an evil god. This is unfortunate.


Because of your own statements on Biblical inerrancy and your own imperfection, we can reject all your conclusions about scripture


On Bible Inerrancy:

You have stated: The Bible is perfect. You also state you are imperfect. Imperfect is conceptually distinct from perfect. It is always less than perfect. Unless you wish to claim you have a perfect understanding of the Bible, the syllogism holds:

1)The Bible is perfect
2) Master Billiards is imperfect
3) What is imperfect cannot understand what is perfect
4) Therefore, Master Billiards cannot understand the Bible

This is not complicated. You have opted for a silly position and cut yourself off from the very thing you sought elevate. This is why none of your conclusions on the meaning of the Bible have any value. They cannot, by your own positioning.


As to claims about perfection: If one states God is perfect or the Bible is perfect, this is not the same as saying Johnny got a perfect score on a test. In the former cases, it is an assertion about Deity and the Bible being pure and commensurate with truth. They are one and the same. With the latter example, a perfect test score means the student answers match what the teacher presented. This does not mean those answers are the truth. The test answers may be wrong, or prove to be wrong as time passes and the understanding of men changes. You have equivocated.


If you assert the Bible is pure and commensurate with truth and therefore is on equal status with Deity in that regard (this is at the core of the Sola Scriptura positioning of Reformed Christianity), that is a type of deification of the Bible and subject to the criticism I gave. If you want to water down your claim on Biblical inerrancy to something akin to Johnny’s test score, then the Bible is perfect claim is of little value and can be dismissed.


On Faith and Works: In attempting to divide the two concepts you have committed a false dichotomy. Paul was not a Protestant. He was a Hellenized Jew. His reference to works in the Book or Romans is the Law of Moses. The Evangelical trope of Faith and Works is a creature of the 16th Century and focused on turning works into a larger abstract concept to contrast with faith.

Heaven is a perfect place.

All of its citizens are perfect.

No imperfect people are among its citizens.

I don’t know what the above is supposed to be doing. Is this another attempt at a syllogism?


PS. I asked to confine our topic to one thing. Which thing do you wish to discuss next? Hopefully, my statement just above.

I mentioned you should reduce these long disjointed posts to a single topic. You refused for some reason. I don't care what the subject is. That is for you to decide.
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
Repeating: You are continuing to say this is "my theory". It isn't.

You are lacking knowledge in eschatology. You can find numerous sources online documenting my stance, and from the Greek.

Thanks.

Master Billiards,

Matt 24:13's meaning is not affected by whether the chapter as a whole is eschatological or no. It is irrelevant to the point. The base point as both Clear and myself have explained is the verse clearly indicates the subject can do a thing that impacts their salvation. To deny this is to deny the text.

But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”.​
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) Orontes said (Post #349): Per Matt 24:13: “But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”. If you recognize the subject must endure to be saved per the very Bible you claim loyalty to, you have ceded the point. There is no getting around this. It undercuts your notion the subject is simply a passive object.

2) Billiardsball said (Post #351) : “Matthew 24:13 is clearly “saved physically from the Tribulation.”

3) Clear said (Post #354) : This new theory of yours that Matt 24:13 means Christians will be “saved physically” from the difficulties of tribulation is unusual, especially since he tells them in vs 9 that they will NOT be saved physically, but instead, disciples will be delivered up and put to death. The words you’re adding to the biblical text to support your theory do not exist in any known Greek New Testament and are not consistent with the historical use of the text. The text is : “ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος, οὗτος σωθήσεται.” And there are no known significant variants in any greek New Testament text.

The various uses of υπομενω (endure, persist, remain, etc) don’t seem to be associated with the blessing of being “saved physically from tribulation” (though you could offer us an example?). And the concept underlying υπομενω of “bearing up” or “enduring” don’t mean “surviving”.

For example, in the PSI IV, 435.11 papyrus (258-7 b.c.) the use of υπομενω την ληιτο[υργ]ιαν is that of “endure my ministry” such that a faithful choice under difficulty is implied. The only example I could find when choice was not involved refers to an undergoing of “suffering” in relation to a penalty one in Papyrus Oxy II 238.viii (186 a.d.) δικην υπομενουσι την προσηκουσαν. However, even then, the object was not passive, the “suffering” in this case is usually an active choice. Thus the Papyrus Hamb I.22.9 speaks of a man who “suffered” for the sake of his daughter (ος κακα πολλ υπεμεινε μιης επιηρα θυγατρος). It was his choice to endure sacrifice (i.e. suffer) for his daughter.

When used “to Endure” and “to remain” it is not the intransitive and passive “staying behind” that is being implied, but rather a willful persistence in a difficult endeavor despite tribulation and difficulties and suffering that is implied. (This is why it is some times rendered as “patience” in English.) Even when Petr III. 43(3) 14 papyrus (of 115 b.c.) speaks of [ο]υχ υπομενει εκουσιως αποδιδοναι” he is speaking of a person who “persistently” (almost a “stubborn patience…” refuses to do a thing out of choice, resisting pressure to do otherwise. It is a choice to continue in a decision that is implied.

For example, using the base word μενω in the context of place and time, P Hib I 55.6 (of 1 b.c.) uses it in the context of being unable to “remain longer”. This is in reference to making a choice of whether or not to maintain in a position for a time. In P Ryl.II 172.81 its’ usage is in reference to TIME when a lease shall “continue” secured, (μενεις επι τη προγεγραμμενη μισθωσι), that is, it is to remain engaged in an agreed upon contract or covenant. This is very much like it’s use in making the Christian covenant anciently. When used in reference to a person, there is usually a choice and will involved. It can be used for other objects that “maintain” a certain “quality” such as when hay “remains” too long uncut in P Flor (of iii a.d.).

None of the uses apply to someone who survives and is thus rewarded with physical survival or physical “salvation”.

Even the word υπο (the other half of μενω – to “abide” or “remain” in english) typically denotes a cause. That is, something which happens “in consequence of”. That is, ones resolve remains, in consequence of a choice in the case of a person. Examples of its use often show the person one is subject to or subjects themselves to another principles (such as a soldier showing obedience or a person obedient and loyal to a promise or condition). However, in such cases, it represents a responsibility or burden.

In this context the word is even used to describe the “burden” or “load” animals are “laden” with. In Fayr Ostrica 14:2 the use is “one ‘donkey’ laden with barleyυπ[ο] κριθ[ην] ονον ενα” or when “one 'donkey' laden with vegetable seed” was spoke in Meyer Ostrica 81:2 (in 23 a.d.) or in BFU I 248:26 when “a 'donkey' laden with three chores of wine,” and in P Tebt II 423.17 spoke of “the animals laden with hay” (early iii a.d.).

The point is that the context of this use is that of a burden, and in the case of mankind, it represents a promise, or covenant, or deal, or agreement, or burden that either one takes upon ones self or is placed upon one to do or be something. Because it is a willing burden, there is a reward for having taken it upon ones self. That is the pattern of use. Even different words used to describe this early Christian promise, carry similar patterns of description and meaning of continuance and then reward. For example :

In Romans 2:7 - To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: The word here is used for “patient continuance”. It is not continuance but involves patience on the part of the person who is enduring. It is not passive.
Luke 8:15 also renders the same word as “patience” - But that on the good ground are they, which in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, keep it, and bring forth fruit with patience. Even the word “patience” implies more than a passive stasis, but instead implies a quality to the endurance. It is not passive, but requires an acceptance of a situation one must tolerate or suffer without getting angry or upset at external pressures and frustrations.
Even other words used to teach the same concepts are almost synonyms in that they involve both an active involvement of will and endurance. Consider, for example, the use of greek βεβαιος in Hebrews in it’s uses.


Hebrews 3:6 - But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.

Hebrews 3:14 - For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end; Even when no synonym is used, the concept of remaining in a current condition and it’s association with a reward are not only recognizable, but obvious in similarity and meaning.

Hebrews 10:39 - But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.

In an almost equivalent situation to that explained by Orontes, as Jesus speaks to the Apostles, Revelation describes a similar situation where the disciples are to “Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life.” Revelation 2:10

In none of these descriptions is the patient continuance of a religious burden rewarded with a physical release or salvation from "tribulation" or difficulties, (though I think there may be exceptions).

You are welcome to present your theory that Matthew 24:13 actually means "But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved (physically from the Tribulation) instead of what the text actually says, but you will have to provide some additional data and reasoning before this interpretation will make more sense than the typical use and interpretation and expected reward of salvation in the kingdom of God as a result of remaining true to all conditions of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

4) Billiardsball replied : (Post #368)
Repeating: You are continuing to say this is "my theory". It isn't....You can find numerous sources online documenting my stance, and from the Greek.


Regarding the re-interpretation of Matthew 24:13
If you are now either disavowing this theory as to a re-interpretation of Matthew 24:13 or trying to move away from it, this is good.
However, you claim you can support your stance as to the "new meaning" of Matthew 24:13. If you have data and logical support, you have been asked to provide it, but have been unable to do so. So far, the data and logic and historical use of the language indicates this attempt to "re-interpret Matthew 24:13 is yet another silly theory that provides yet another example (in a increasingly long line of examples) of how loyalty to an ideology trumps the actual biblical text.

Regarding the dead Penal model and introducing irrelevance
I agree with Orontes that introducing an irrelevant issue of escatology (or trying to change the subject), cannot instill life into the dead penal model.

Clear
sieitzfu
 
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BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
Because of your own statements on Biblical inerrancy and your own imperfection, we can reject all your conclusions about scripture

I hear you loud and clear. If I offer an idea, it is wrong de facto and you will not bother to read it or research it.

How should I take your conclusions on the scripture? You’ve said your personal logical syllogisms are always logical and above scripture. You’ve said scriptures have mistakes within. Why should we believe your conclusions from the scriptures?

You seem to take issue with my base reply. I’ll put it another way. There is no gender specific second person plural in Koine Greek, so your question turns on a misunderstanding of the language. My point has been that priesthood both with Judaism at the time, the compliers of the New Testament and the subsequent Christian Tradition that developed for basically the next 20 Centuries understood Priesthood as male. It’s fine if you disagree with that, but it simply means you are at odds with the roots of Christianity and its Tradition.

No, my question was based on the fact that before I asked, I knew you had no Greek justification for your stance. Apparently, the tens of millions of Christians, including Greek scholars, who understand and teach that all Christian women and men form a unified priesthood of believers are wrong. Clearly, only 12-year-old men and only those in the LDS movement are true priests. A woman cannot make priestly intercession via prayer, and a woman cannot live sacrificially as a priest via Romans 12:1-2 and so on. Thanks for clearing the air.

If you assert the Bible is pure and commensurate with truth and therefore is on equal status with Deity in that regard (this is at the core of the Sola Scriptura positioning of Reformed Christianity), that is a type of deification of the Bible and subject to the criticism I gave. If you want to water down your claim on Biblical inerrancy to something akin to Johnny’s test score, then the Bible is perfect claim is of little value and can be dismissed.

If you are imperfect, and don’t understand perfection, how are you justified in saying my understanding of perfection is a misunderstanding? Be consistent with your logic.

On Faith and Works: In attempting to divide the two concepts you have committed a false dichotomy. Paul was not a Protestant. He was a Hellenized Jew. His reference to works in the Book or Romans is the Law of Moses. The Evangelical trope of Faith and Works is a creature of the 16th Century and focused on turning works into a larger abstract concept to contrast with faith.

Paul says a person is justified by faith apart from works (Romans 3). You disagree? You feel they realized in the 16th Century that people were justified by faith apart from works? Do you and I understand justification differently?

I don’t know what the above is supposed to be doing. Is this another attempt at a syllogism?

Do you disagree with my assertions? Do you believe imperfect people will be in Heaven, the new Heaven that comes? If so, what changes do you think Jesus will impart to believers, if any, when He returns?

Master Billiards,

Matt 24:13's meaning is not affected by whether the chapter as a whole is eschatological or no. It is irrelevant to the point. The base point as both Clear and myself have explained is the verse clearly indicates the subject can do a thing that impacts their salvation. To deny this is to deny the text.

“But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”.

I will accept your conclusions regarding Matthew 24:13 if you will first tell me whether it is true or not. How do you know this verse is:

*The word of Christ?

*Not a later redaction?

*Not an errant verse, not a mistaken verse?
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
1) Orontes said (Post #349): Per Matt 24:13: “But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”. If you recognize the subject must endure to be saved per the very Bible you claim loyalty to, you have ceded the point. There is no getting around this. It undercuts your notion the subject is simply a passive object.

2) Billiardsball said (Post #351) : “Matthew 24:13 is clearly “saved physically from the Tribulation.”

3) Clear said (Post #354) : This new theory of yours that Matt 24:13 means Christians will be “saved physically” from the difficulties of tribulation is unusual, especially since he tells them in vs 9 that they will NOT be saved physically, but instead, disciples will be delivered up and put to death. The words you’re adding to the biblical text to support your theory do not exist in any known Greek New Testament and are not consistent with the historical use of the text. The text is : “ὁ δὲ ὑπομείνας εἰς τέλος, οὗτος σωθήσεται.” And there are no known significant variants in any greek New Testament text.

The various uses of υπομενω (endure, persist, remain, etc) don’t seem to be associated with the blessing of being “saved physically from tribulation” (though you could offer us an example?). And the concept underlying υπομενω of “bearing up” or “enduring” don’t mean “surviving”.

For example, in the PSI IV, 435.11 papyrus (258-7 b.c.) the use of υπομενω την ληιτο[υργ]ιαν is that of “endure my ministry” such that a faithful choice under difficulty is implied. The only example I could find when choice was not involved refers to an undergoing of “suffering” in relation to a penalty one in Papyrus Oxy II 238.viii (186 a.d.) δικην υπομενουσι την προσηκουσαν. However, even then, the object was not passive, the “suffering” in this case is usually an active choice. Thus the Papyrus Hamb I.22.9 speaks of a man who “suffered” for the sake of his daughter (ος κακα πολλ υπεμεινε μιης επιηρα θυγατρος). It was his choice to endure sacrifice (i.e. suffer) for his daughter.

When used “to Endure” and “to remain” it is not the intransitive and passive “staying behind” that is being implied, but rather a willful persistence in a difficult endeavor despite tribulation and difficulties and suffering that is implied. (This is why it is some times rendered as “patience” in English.) Even when Petr III. 43(3) 14 papyrus (of 115 b.c.) speaks of [ο]υχ υπομενει εκουσιως αποδιδοναι” he is speaking of a person who “persistently” (almost a “stubborn patience…” refuses to do a thing out of choice, resisting pressure to do otherwise. It is a choice to continue in a decision that is implied.

For example, using the base word μενω in the context of place and time, P Hib I 55.6 (of 1 b.c.) uses it in the context of being unable to “remain longer”. This is in reference to making a choice of whether or not to maintain in a position for a time. In P Ryl.II 172.81 its’ usage is in reference to TIME when a lease shall “continue” secured, (μενεις επι τη προγεγραμμενη μισθωσι), that is, it is to remain engaged in an agreed upon contract or covenant. This is very much like it’s use in making the Christian covenant anciently. When used in reference to a person, there is usually a choice and will involved. It can be used for other objects that “maintain” a certain “quality” such as when hay “remains” too long uncut in P Flor (of iii a.d.).

None of the uses apply to someone who survives and is thus rewarded with physical survival or physical “salvation”.

Even the word υπο (the other half of μενω – to “abide” or “remain” in english) typically denotes a cause. That is, something which happens “in consequence of”. That is, ones resolve remains, in consequence of a choice in the case of a person. Examples of its use often show the person one is subject to or subjects themselves to another principles (such as a soldier showing obedience or a person obedient and loyal to a promise or condition). However, in such cases, it represents a responsibility or burden.

In this context the word is even used to describe the “burden” or “load” animals are “laden” with. In Fayr Ostrica 14:2 the use is “one ‘donkey’ laden with barleyυπ[ο] κριθ[ην] ονον ενα” or when “one 'donkey' laden with vegetable seed” was spoke in Meyer Ostrica 81:2 (in 23 a.d.) or in BFU I 248:26 when “a 'donkey' laden with three chores of wine,” and in P Tebt II 423.17 spoke of “the animals laden with hay” (early iii a.d.).

The point is that the context of this use is that of a burden, and in the case of mankind, it represents a promise, or covenant, or deal, or agreement, or burden that either one takes upon ones self or is placed upon one to do or be something. Because it is a willing burden, there is a reward for having taken it upon ones self. That is the pattern of use. Even different words used to describe this early Christian promise, carry similar patterns of description and meaning of continuance and then reward. For example :

In Romans 2:7 - To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life: The word here is used for “patient continuance”. It is not continuance but involves patience on the part of the person who is enduring. It is not passive.
Luke 8:15 also renders the same word as “patience” - But that on the good ground are they, which in an honest and good heart, having heard the word, keep it, and bring forth fruit with patience. Even the word “patience” implies more than a passive stasis, but instead implies a quality to the endurance. It is not passive, but requires an acceptance of a situation one must tolerate or suffer without getting angry or upset at external pressures and frustrations.
Even other words used to teach the same concepts are almost synonyms in that they involve both an active involvement of will and endurance. Consider, for example, the use of greek βεβαιος in Hebrews in it’s uses.


Hebrews 3:6 - But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.

Hebrews 3:14 - For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end; Even when no synonym is used, the concept of remaining in a current condition and it’s association with a reward are not only recognizable, but obvious in similarity and meaning.

Hebrews 10:39 - But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.

In an almost equivalent situation to that explained by Orontes, as Jesus speaks to the Apostles, Revelation describes a similar situation where the disciples are to “Fear none of those things which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried; and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of life.” Revelation 2:10

In none of these descriptions is the patient continuance of a religious burden rewarded with a physical release or salvation from "tribulation" or difficulties, (though I think there may be exceptions).

You are welcome to present your theory that Matthew 24:13 actually means "But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved (physically from the Tribulation) instead of what the text actually says, but you will have to provide some additional data and reasoning before this interpretation will make more sense than the typical use and interpretation and expected reward of salvation in the kingdom of God as a result of remaining true to all conditions of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

4) Billiardsball replied : (Post #368)
Repeating: You are continuing to say this is "my theory". It isn't....You can find numerous sources online documenting my stance, and from the Greek.


Regarding the re-interpretation of Matthew 24:13
If you are now either disavowing this theory as to a re-interpretation of Matthew 24:13 or trying to move away from it, this is good.
However, you claim you can support your stance as to the "new meaning" of Matthew 24:13. If you have data and logical support, you have been asked to provide it, but have been unable to do so. So far, the data and logic and historical use of the language indicates this attempt to "re-interpret Matthew 24:13 is yet another silly theory that provides yet another example (in a increasingly long line of examples) of how loyalty to an ideology trumps the actual biblical text.

Regarding the dead Penal model and introducing irrelevance
I agree with Orontes that introducing an irrelevant issue of escatology (or trying to change the subject), cannot instill life into the dead penal model.

Clear
sieitzfu

Your Greek is clearly off here, and you are continuing to duck the charge that you've only studied LDS "eschatology". In both cases, I'm surprised that you continue to say "my new theory" showing a disregard for giants of Greek and of the faith. Shame on you, sir.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
I've given some more thought to Paul's possible stance in Romans 7 and etc. Certainly, many fine Christians believe Paul is describing his state before conversion, and many fine Christians believe differently.

Even though prosoepoeia has gotten a modern discussion going with some recent books and papers, surely early church fathers knew this common theatre device. Please list all the early church fathers who wrote that Paul was using prosoepoeia in Romans:

1 _______________

2 _______________

3 _______________

I should think those living in those Roman times would have commented on Paul's prosoepoeia usage, and this will clear up everything for me, and quickly.

Thank you!
 

Orontes

Master of the Horse
I hear you loud and clear. If I offer an idea, it is wrong de facto and you will not bother to read it or research it.

How should I take your conclusions on the scripture? You’ve said your personal logical syllogisms are always logical and above scripture. You’ve said scriptures have mistakes within. Why should we believe your conclusions from the scriptures?


This isn’t a considered reply. Nowhere have I stated anything you post is de facto wrong. All the conclusions about your notions are tied to applying reason to you positions. If they cannot hold up to rational scrutiny, then they are irrational. If you still hold to irrational views after this is pointed out, then that says something about yourself. As I’ve stated before: you are loyal to an ideology over reason, over the Bible or any other factor.


Logic isn’t personal. Arguments (or syllogisms in this case) are either valid or no.

You don’t have to believe my conclusions on scripture. The more interesting point for you to consider, I would think, is why you continue to hold to positions that have been demonstrated as absurd? An irrational devotional life is not compelling.


No, my question was based on the fact that before I asked, I knew you had no Greek justification for your stance. Apparently, the tens of millions of Christians, including Greek scholars, who understand and teach that all Christian women and men form a unified priesthood of believers are wrong. Clearly, only 12-year-old men and only those in the LDS movement are true priests. A woman cannot make priestly intercession via prayer, and a woman cannot live sacrificially as a priest via Romans 12:1-2 and so on. Thanks for clearing the air.


This is another poorly considered reply. You ask a question about Greek that does not apply to the point and then think you scored some kind of point. I’ll illustrate this error further. Japanese doesn’t distinguish between foot and leg in the language. It simply has the word “ashi”. If one said “X broke his ashi”, from that statement alone, one couldn’t claim it was the foot or leg that was broken. Some other data would be needed. The word priesthood in Koine isn’t gender specific. Therefore if one were to make any conclusions about gender and priesthood, they would not look at the vocabulary, but the understanding of the writers of the texts: their practices, beliefs etc. We know from the beliefs and practices of Christian Koine speakers that priesthood was always male. This was normative until the Twentieth Century when some Protestant groups under influence from the Feminist Movement in the West began allowing women priests. The same thing is now happening regarding gays. The point is this: if one is going to deviate from the beliefs of those who created the New Testament, some kind of justification is needed. You don’t seem to have any. This is a problem.


As to Mormon stances on priesthood: The Mormon position is exclusive. Mormonism doesn’t recognize any other non-Mormon priests as having authority. Priesthood is seen as something that derives from God, not personal whim or volition.


If you are imperfect, and don’t understand perfection, how are you justified in saying my understanding of perfection is a misunderstanding? Be consistent with your logic.

Your response is a non sequitur. If you make a truth claim, there are ramifications to that claim. In your case, those ramifications are:
  1. Because you claim the Bible is perfect and you are not, you are unable to make any final conclusions about its meaning. Your scriptural conclusions can be dismissed by your own assertions.
  2. Because you have granted to the Bible the same kind of perfection as Deity, you have de facto deified the text. You have created a false idol at the very core of your belief system.


Paul says a person is justified by faith apart from works (Romans 3). You disagree? You feel they realized in the 16th Century that people were justified by faith apart from works? Do you and I understand justification differently?

This has been explained ad nauseam. All of Paul’s references to works in the Book of Romans are the Law of Moses. He is never referring to works as an abstract concept.

Luther in the early 16th Century created the faith-works dichotomy that informs Protestantism. This is all tied to his initially being an Augustinian Monk. His narrow reading of St. Augustine’s life story and writings that resonated deeply with Luther’s own sense of inadequacy, and his hostility to Papal practices and corruption.


Do you disagree with my assertions? Do you believe imperfect people will be in Heaven, the new Heaven that comes? If so, what changes do you think Jesus will impart to believers, if any, when He returns?


As has been discussed previously, if perfection includes a moral element, then neither Jesus, or anyone else, can make another perfect. The moral arena is by definition tied to free will. One cannot force goodness. Where you and I disagree is I believe in repentance. You do not.


I will accept your conclusions regarding Matthew 24:13 if you will first tell me whether it is true or not. How do you know this verse is:

*The word of Christ?

*Not a later redaction?

*Not an errant verse, not a mistaken verse?

Mormonism believes in prophets and revelation. It does not believe the Heavens are sealed. It is not dependent on personal conclusions alone. Mormonism actually has what is basically a midrash on the entirety of Matt. 24. from Joseph Smith. So, Mormons have the Bible text and Joseph Smith’s midrash. From these two sources, Mormons basically accept, that regardless of who the author of Mathew was, the text is taken as conveying Christ’s message. Note: Most Mormons also sees Matt 24 as eschatological, but none of that relates to the base point.


“But he that endure to the end, the same shall be saved” from Matt. 24: 13 is a counter example to your ideas man is a passive object. It is that simple.
 
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Orontes

Master of the Horse
I've given some more thought to Paul's possible stance in Romans 7 and etc. Certainly, many fine Christians believe Paul is describing his state before conversion, and many fine Christians believe differently.

Even though prosoepoeia has gotten a modern discussion going with some recent books and papers, surely early church fathers knew this common theatre device. Please list all the early church fathers who wrote that Paul was using prosoepoeia in Romans:

1 _______________

2 _______________

3 _______________

I should think those living in those Roman times would have commented on Paul's prosoepoeia usage, and this will clear up everything for me, and quickly.

Thank you!


OK. I’ll give you three, all relating to the Book of Romans and chapter 7 specifically:

  1. Origen: this can be found in his rebuttal’s to the anti-Christian Celsus. These are cited in the "Philokalia"

  2. Rufinus: this can be found in his Latin translations of the "Catenae"

  3. St. Jerome: this is found in his "Epistle 121".
I find it odd that you would ask for Classical references to convince you, when Clear has post after post showing the vast body of ancient material that contradicts your various silly ideas, and you remain loyal to your chosen ideology regardless.

You remind me of the old Chinese story of the frog in the well who refuses to believe there is such a thing as an Ocean, regardless of what others tell him. Your devotional world will escape its unforced errors, become rational and more satisfying when you accept:

1) Penal Substitution is an immoral, irrational and unjust system,
2) Biblical inerrancy is absurd
3) and repentance is fundamental to the Christian path, not the contrivances of cheap grace.
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST ONE OF TWO

Orontes said to billiardsball
: “As has been discussed previously, if perfection includes a moral element, then neither Jesus, or anyone else, can make another perfect. The moral arena is by definition tied to free will. One cannot force goodness. Where you and I disagree is I believe in repentance. You do not.” (Post # 375)


There is a subtle distinction that I’d like to point out as a friendly amendment to this statement if possible (I don't want to put words in your mouth...). I think the type of repentance that Billiardsball did not believe in was the early Christian version of repentance. I think he expressed his own "watered down" version of repentance that involved a simple change of mind toward a belief in Jesus, rather than the early Judeo-Christian version that was much more meaningful in the moral context.

For example, in the God in Mormonism thread, BilliardsBall, described his theory that individuals could continue in despicable, sinful lives, including rape and oppression of others and they could even denounce and repudiate and defy God himself, but that God would still reward them with heaven if they had simply momentarily believed in Jesus and momentarily accepted him as their savior. This was the early stage of your and his disagreement with Billiardsballs theory of "once one gets on the bus to heaven, they cannot get off….. "

In post # 116, Billiardsball explained his interpretation of repentance by saying : " Repentance, by the way, in the Greek, means to change one's mind. Of course one would have to change one's mind to trust Jesus. If I don't trust Jesus, I can only trust myself to enter Heaven." (Billiardsball, post # 116)


Thus my reply to Billiardsball in Post # 121 below (this is after he had claimed to have training in greek, thus the greek references are detailed)...

START QUOTE
“I have had to point out multiple times that your modern theories which you create with modern English interpretations forced onto ancient texts written by ancient individuals are quite different than the interpretations those ancients described. Your Christianity is quite different than that of the earliest Christians.

I’ve also asked you multiple times why your interpretation is preferred over ancient Christians who lived in the earliest Christian movement (without any answer). Why is your modern Christianity with its modern interpretations to be preferred over the earliest and most authentic Christianity with their ancient interpretations?

This IS however, the first time that I have pointed out that your specific modern theory that one can, if they initially, sincerely believe in Jesus will still be rewarded and blessed if they later come to repudiate their belief and and both defy God and be disobedient to God and do indescribably despicable moral acts. This is differs from early Christianity since, in their worldview, those Christian who defied God were NOT rewarded the same as those who were repentant.

In authentic early christian interpretation, you could not, as a backsliding Christian, defy and repudiate God and abuse, rape and murder multiple children and still be rewarded the same as a Christian who attempts to act morally and avoids such evil actions.


BilliardsBall said : " Repentance, by the way, in the Greek, means to change one's mind. Of course one would have to change one's mind to trust Jesus. If I don't trust Jesus, I can only trust myself to enter Heaven. Thus, the problem." (post # 116)

The Koine Greek word "Μετανοεω" in its various forms and uses HISTORICALLY meant much more than to simply change one’s mind (like asking for chocolate ice cream and changing ones mind and asking for vanilla instead. It had much more profound religious meaning to the ancient Christian (and others) in their texts. It applied to a change of attitude; a transformation; an actual change in nature from one nature, to another nature (whether towards God or in other ways). Let me give examples from early Milligan papyral examples from Koine Greek by individuals who actually used this term .


The Base meaning of Μετανοεω referred to a deeper change of nature

We have many examples of the normal use of Μετανοεω, in many examples from early Papyri from these earliest periods and it is typically rendered, in its most basic form, to "repent". For example, when in papyri P Tebt ii. 424.5 (late iii a.d.) one man tells another “ ει μεν επιμενις σου απονοια, συνχε(=αι)ρω σοι ει δε μετανοεις, συ οιδας, (ι.ε.“...if you persist in your folly, I congratulate you : if you repent, only you know “). Though In Menandrea p. 12:72 it is true that the translation seems to mean a “change of mind”, it is more than “repent” and more than a simple change of a simple and single choice, but instead, Μετανοεω indicates a complete change of attitude, spiritual and moral, towards God. (Milligan).

For example, Aristeas (in 188) describes God as “μετατιθεις εκ της κακιας [και] εις μετανοιαν αξεις” “turning [men] from their wickedness and leading them to amendment.” It is NOT merely a decision, but a change in men that is occuring. In ZNTW, Wrede describes the translation of μετανοια in the NT as “nicht Sinnesanderung, sondern Busse” , that is, μετανοια is “not [simply] changing the type of sin, rather [real] repentance (my translation).

Lactantius also (of Div. Inst. Vi. 24. 6) uses latin resipiscentia, as a “coming to one’s senses, resulting in a change of conduct.” A common thread in such uses is that an actual change in the base nature of the person is involved. This underlying context is part of the compounded component words making up "μετανοια".

μετα-νοια and the meanings of it's base compound words

The greek word rendered “repent” is compounded from the two words “Νοεω” / english “mind” and “Μετα” / english “change”. Each word has historical context and ancient meaning. Consider the meaning the ancients themselves attached to these two words in creating the word "μετα-νοια".

"Νοεω" / english “mind” applied to thoughts and emotions and considerations, judgments, etc and thus meant much more than simple “cognition” or a “preference” like preferring chocolate over vanilla…

For example, “...νοων και φρονων..." was commonly used in legal wills in pre-roman and roman periods. For example, the Petr. Papyrus I. 16 (1)42 ( of b.c. 237) uses the phrase “ ...ταδε διεθετο νοων και φρονων Μενιππος...” when the testator is claiming to be ....sane and in his right mind...” in his own will. The testator is not simply describing a belief or "choosing a preference", but he is characterizing the quality of his entire thought processes, his perceptions and his understandings, that they are sound.

Christian P Oxy I 104.4 (of 96 a.d.) and 491.2 (of 126 a.d). display the very same language, used in the very same manner. BGU 1.114.i.9 (of 117 a.d) also uses the term to describe general "perception" and "understanding" in the very same way. P. Par 63.11.61 (of 165 b.c.) uses the term to describe one mental “purpose” or goal. All of these demonstrate what the term meant to and how it was used by very the individuals who used the term, and in the very early time periods when it was used, and in the very language in which it was used.

Such textual witnesses of actual usage demonstrate that the “mind” that is being “changed” in "Μετανοεω" / english “repent” is NOT referring to a simple change in a simple choice, but of the way one thinks and feels and perceives. It is an actual change in the nature of thinking itself that is referred to. Even in Modern Greek, when one uses “Νοιωθω”, they are not speaking of “mind” per se, but rather they are referring to what is “perceived” and what is “felt” and what is “noticed”.

Thus, when one sees "νοηματα" in a greek New Testament text, and it’s rendered “thoughts” (in an English bible), as Heinrici (in Meyer8) points out, it is used in the sense of the “mind” itself and it’s “reason” rather than simple “thoughts” or a simple decisions that are implied.

These historical contexts should be considered when one thinks about what it meant to the ancient Christians to “repent”, using Μετανοεω as a “change of nature" rather than as a simple "changing one's mind” about a decision. The historical implication went much deeper than that.


Considering Μετα in the context of a change (from one condition to another)

Consider for example, what it meant to “change” something, almost anything, by compounding a word, almost ANY word, with the Koine Greek word “μετα”.

The genitive uses ordinary meaning was not simply “with”, but always there are two (or more) actors involved. One (or more) thing acted “in company with” another.

If I say “I went with mom to the store”, there are two actors involved. Thus, for example, when P Eleph 1.15 (of 311 b.c.) says “...τοις μετα Δημητριας,... “ it means “...those acting WITH Demetria,...”. P Tebt I.35.10 (of 111 b.c.), “...ος κ[α]ι μεθ υμων υπο την εντολην ε υπογραφει,... “ is rendered “... who shall append his signature to the edict together WITH yours... “. When P Amb ii.135.24 (of early ii.a.d.) says “ ....ερρωσθαι σε ευχ[ομαι] μετα των τεκν[ω(ν)]..., it is rendered “...I pray for your health and for that of your children... “

In this context, there is always one thing acting in concert with another thing. Just as when one spoke of μετανοια as a “change of mind” had a deeper meaning, when one spoke of μετανοια in the case of accepting the gospel WITH the mind, the context is that of full acceptance with the heart and full purpose, rather than merely with actions. The mind, as the seat of intelligence, of feeling and emotion and of perceptions and choice is, in this religious context, to act in concert with the religious conviction. In NONE of these typical uses, is μετανοια merely a simple change of mind one makes with a food choice or a beverage flavor during lunch.

Thus, in this context of doing a thing with one's mind and heart, in this usage, Μετα also refers to the manner in which a thing was carried out.

For example, in P. Petr ii.19 (ia)2 (of iii b.c.), when a prisoner wrote a petition saying “...αξιω σε μετα δεησεως και ικετειας ουνεκα του θεου και καλως εχοντος,.... “, it meant “ I beseech you WITH PRAYER AND SUPPLICATION in the name of God and of fair play “ . The use of "Μετα" of "Μετα-νοεω" in this case applied to the very manner in which an action is performed.

(quote continues in post two of two below)
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO (QUOTE CONTINUES)

For the early Christian, religion and worship and interactions with fellow men were to be done with the mind and heart, with full and correct purpose, acting in no hypocrisy.

A simple Christian example might be simply “to do a thing right” (properly or in accordance with a religious norm). P Oxy I. 123.15 (of iii/iv a.d.) has an example from this papyri where the text says : “.... let him remember when he enters that he must wear the proper dress, that he may enter prepared... “ / “ εισβαινων ουν μετα της αισθητος [εσθητος] γνωτω ο ερχομενος ινα ετοιμος εισβη,...”. (the text indicates those entering were ordered to wear cloaks...).

This same application of doing a thing in a certain manner applied to mental states or emotions or feelings. For example P. Amh II.133.11 (early ii a.d.) speaks of a thing done "...with great difficulty...” (using "...μετα πολλων κοπων...), indicating a thing to be done “according to” a certain standard such as one’s degree of knowledge and understanding. Thus, if a man knows to do good and does it not…. then he could “repent” and do it “....μετα της εαυτου γνωμης...“ (“…according to your knowledge...”) as this example from P Tebt I.27.32 (of 113 b.c.) uses the term.

The instrumental useage of μετανοεω (i.e. “by means of the mind”) is noted in multiple examples from early papyri as well (P Lond (of iii a.d.) / 46.65 (of iv a.d.) / BGU III 909.8 (of 359 a.d.), etc). Such useage is closely aligned with the Semitic literal translation of “in connection with” such as in Proleg p. 106 or P. Amh II. 135.15 (of early ii. a.d.). IF "with the mind" meant, "with the heart" (as in modern language), then such uses parallel and support moral context of how one is to engage Christianity "with the heart" (i.e. with full purpose and with no hypocrisy and with conviction).

I can give other examples from papyri of these uses from BGU, OGIS, etc if anyone is interested. I am a bit tired of offering examples from early papyri.


The reason to use early Greek Koine papyri from ancients that actually USED Koine Greek is to show how the ancients themselves used these terms; what the terms actually meant to THEM.

Just as Μετανοεω also meant “with the mind” (i.e. it’s feelings, thoughts, intentions, purposes, etc) as well; the word meta took on formulaic use such as “μεταΒιας” (english "with effort") in the same ways that “with kind regards” became a formulaic end to letters nowadays.

The point in looking at Μετανοεω (change of mind) in the context of ancient usage, is to show that in the early context and actual ancient usage, even in common textual use, to "change one’s mind" involved a process of a profound change of the very nature of our thoughts and actions and what we think and what we do. Μετανοεω was not simply a simply change of a simple and single choice, but, it involved a change from one nature to another nature.

Adding Koine Greek "μετα" to other words also demonstrates a similar pattern.

For example, Μεταβαλλομαι is not merely “move” (though it is rendered as “move” in English), but it involves an actual change of place, a transfer from one place or level to an entirely different place or level just as μετανοια represented a change of thinking, a transfer and "meta-morphosis" from one level of thinking and acting to another level.

A similar modification is made to μεταγω in that it becomes, not merely a movement, but a transfer from one place to another, just as μετανοια referred to a process change in the mind from one nature to another nature.

Please let me know if you want examples for these last words (or other examples) from the early papyri. I have them but it is TWO o'clock in the morning and I’m getting very tired.

I suppose I can quit giving examples since it is clear that Μετανοεω / change of mind / heart / purpose / goals / perception / nature, etc. is the religious context underlying the use of this term.

Without actual, real, and authentic “repentance” / Μετανοεω as the ancients used the term, in early Christianity, neither BilliardsBall (nor all of the rest of us) could be saved with the highest reward God gives to individuals. Certainly, those Christians who turned and became evil could not expect the same reward and those who continued to attempt to be obedient to God. “ END QUOTE

Orontes, My point is that I think Billiardsball did express a belief in his own version of repentance, but that his interpretative version had little to do with the authentic version of repentance that was referred to in early Judeo-Christian religion, and thus the issue is not that he did not believe in "repentance", but that he did not believe in the Christian repentance taught by early Christians.

If, on the other hand, you are assuming the early version of repentance in your statement, then your statement the Billiardsball does "not believe in repentance" is perfectly correct. I admit it is a semantic detail and may not become important to any ensuing discussion.

I hope your journey is good.

Clear
σιτωακειω
 
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BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
This isn’t a considered reply. Nowhere have I stated anything you post is de facto wrong. All the conclusions about your notions are tied to applying reason to you positions. If they cannot hold up to rational scrutiny, then they are irrational. If you still hold to irrational views after this is pointed out, then that says something about yourself. As I’ve stated before: you are loyal to an ideology over reason, over the Bible or any other factor.

Logic isn’t personal. Arguments (or syllogisms in this case) are either valid or no.

You don’t have to believe my conclusions on scripture. The more interesting point for you to consider, I would think, is why you continue to hold to positions that have been demonstrated as absurd? An irrational devotional life is not compelling.

Good points all. Your syllogism that an imperfect person cannot comprehend the need for spiritual purity or perfection is invalid. I’ve asked in the form of a question before, but I can rephrase: What change do you think will happen to the believer to make them fit for the eternal kingdom?

I’ve observed that a utopia cannot have imperfect people within, wounding one another, hurting one another. I’ve also met Mormons who (if I understand correctly?) say only the most pure persons “imaginable” can attain to the third heaven.

As for why I would hold to a doctrine you consider absurd, I would point you to the biblical view that says those with correct doctrine regarding the gospel are misunderstood, meaning that you may not be a true believer or I may not be a true believer. Consider carefully, I urge you… put another way, since I believe in the assurance of the believer and etc. I’m not sure you are right with God, since you vehemently, stridently oppose my positions and since you are clearly mixing your personal efforts and deeds with the free gift Christ has offered. You have “Jesus gave me a free gift, now I must retain possession of the gift by showing my worthiness.” Did you receive it in the first place because you were worthy? “God demonstrates His love in that while we were yet [unregenerate] sinners, Christ died for us!”

This is another poorly considered reply. You ask a question about Greek that does not apply to the point and then think you scored some kind of point. I’ll illustrate this error further. Japanese doesn’t distinguish between foot and leg in the language. It simply has the word “ashi”. If one said “X broke his ashi”, from that statement alone, one couldn’t claim it was the foot or leg that was broken. Some other data would be needed. The word priesthood in Koine isn’t gender specific. Therefore if one were to make any conclusions about gender and priesthood, they would not look at the vocabulary, but the understanding of the writers of the texts: their practices, beliefs etc. We know from the beliefs and practices of Christian Koine speakers that priesthood was always male. This was normative until the Twentieth Century when some Protestant groups under influence from the Feminist Movement in the West began allowing women priests. The same thing is now happening regarding gays. The point is this: if one is going to deviate from the beliefs of those who created the New Testament, some kind of justification is needed. You don’t seem to have any. This is a problem.

The problem is rather you are saying tradition or accepted orthopractice (women were not priests until this century) is superior to scripture. Scripture is clear that some, not all, differences between men and women were abolished in the cross. Nor do you have scriptural justification that only LDS men are the true priesthood. The scripture says all believers, even if we go with only male Christian believers! How do you support your stance as a Mormon adherent, please? Repeating, I know numerous believers who think women are priestly in prayer and intercession, but I know zero evangelical Christian men who say, “Scripturally speaking, only Mormon men are the true priesthood.”

Because you claim the Bible is perfect and you are not, you are unable to make any final conclusions about its meaning. Your scriptural conclusions can be dismissed by your own assertions.

Because you have granted to the Bible the same kind of perfection as Deity, you have de facto deified the text. You have created a false idol at the very core of your belief system.

Why do you not follow your own conclusions then? I’ve stated in other words multiple times, here rephrased:

Because you claim the Bible has errors and later redactions in the text, you cannot claim with any certainty any final conclusions about its meaning. For example, you made a counterclaim to one of my claims, and cited the Peter text under debate. How do you know Peter said what the text says? How do you know the Peter epistles are divinely inspired? If you are uncertain, why debate them with me?

This has been explained ad nauseam. All of Paul’s references to works in the Book of Romans are the Law of Moses. He is never referring to works as an abstract concept.

Luther in the early 16th Century created the faith-works dichotomy that informs Protestantism. This is all tied to his initially being an Augustinian Monk. His narrow reading of St. Augustine’s life story and writings that resonated deeply with Luther’s own sense of inadequacy, and his hostility to Papal practices and corruption.

I have already granted, indeed, insisted, that Paul was referring to the Law of Moses. Now consider, if the Law of Moses makes moral pronouncements and moral laws, how can you be saved by behaving morally? If you believe the Pentateuch says repentance saves, and Paul is saying adherence to the Penteteuch’s laws and commandments cannot save, why would you say repentance saves, etc.?

I’m seeking conciliation and fellowship with you, but I’m willing to offend you for the sake of the gospel if needed. I am given to understand that you do not believe in Jesus as saving you, but only starting you on a road to salvation that you are journeying down via repentance and moral behavior, two of the non-salvific ideas that are repudiated by Paul’s repudiating any adherence to the Pentateuch as saving!

I say this respectfully, but you have set a strawman, a false dichotomy of works and grace. I’m arguing against a Mosaic Law salvation, therefore, we agree, but I believe you are still using devices from the Pentateuch to try to earn your own salvation.

As has been discussed previously, if perfection includes a moral element, then neither Jesus, or anyone else, can make another perfect. The moral arena is by definition tied to free will. One cannot force goodness. Where you and I disagree is I believe in repentance. You do not.

Repentance leads to salvation. Therefore, it is not saving it and of itself. The problem is we are both skipping over verses like “He has taken away the list of our offences,” that is, the record of our moral crimes, so that we may not be MADE perfect but are JUDGED innocent, as if we ARE perfect. I find it a bit off-putting in evangelism to tell people I witness to, “You are guilty before God but He will overlook all your moral faults and change you when the time comes so you can be in a perfect Heaven,” so I find it convenient to say, “Nobody’s perfect. Jesus didn’t die because He was imperfect. He died having done nothing wrong for our sake.”

Mormonism believes in prophets and revelation. It does not believe the Heavens are sealed. It is not dependent on personal conclusions alone. Mormonism actually has what is basically a midrash on the entirety of Matt. 24. from Joseph Smith. So, Mormons have the Bible text and Joseph Smith’s midrash. From these two sources, Mormons basically accept, that regardless of who the author of Mathew was, the text is taken as conveying Christ’s message. Note: Most Mormons also sees Matt 24 as eschatological, but none of that relates to the base point.

“But he that endure to the end, the same shall be saved” from Matt. 24: 13 is a counter example to your ideas man is a passive object. It is that simple.

What is not simple is what does “endure” mean? What is not simple is what does “end” mean? I await your replies.

Thanks.
 

BilliardsBall

Veteran Member
OK. I’ll give you three, all relating to the Book of Romans and chapter 7 specifically:

  1. Origen: this can be found in his rebuttal’s to the anti-Christian Celsus. These are cited in the "Philokalia"

  2. Rufinus: this can be found in his Latin translations of the "Catenae"

  3. St. Jerome: this is found in his "Epistle 121".
I find it odd that you would ask for Classical references to convince you, when Clear has post after post showing the vast body of ancient material that contradicts your various silly ideas, and you remain loyal to your chosen ideology regardless.

You remind me of the old Chinese story of the frog in the well who refuses to believe there is such a thing as an Ocean, regardless of what others tell him. Your devotional world will escape its unforced errors, become rational and more satisfying when you accept:

1) Penal Substitution is an immoral, irrational and unjust system,
2) Biblical inerrancy is absurd
3) and repentance is fundamental to the Christian path, not the contrivances of cheap grace.

I think that is most helpful, your references. You should be aware that we evangelicals have much debate regarding whether Romans 7 is Paul's state as a tormented believer or his past state. If there are early church references to Paul using prosoepoeia as you wrote, that would be a smoking gun and most helpful. I will try to source these online! Thank you.

As for your 1, 2 and 3:

1 is what we're discussing, and I'm open, but I wonder why you've never replied when I mention scriptures like "The Lord has laid on Him all OUR iniquities."

2 is not a popular position, it's true. However, when I began reading Dr. Geisler's book detailing answers to 700-plus questions of inerrancy that skeptics raise, I remember thinking, "I've encountered all these!" meaning that whenever someone raises a contradiction in the text, I read it and research it, and I remain more convinced than ever that there are reasoned answers to the problems inerrancy raises for many.

3 is a misstatement of my position. I don't think you really believe I feel repentance is an afterthought. I just stand on the Greek meaning of the term, which means to change one's mind. It is necessary for salvation. If I meet an Indian woman and share the gospel with her but she is new to hearing about Jesus and the NT, and she trusts Jesus for salvation, she would then tell others, "I used to believe my Hindu beliefs could save me, but I've changed my mind, only Jesus can save." That is biblical repentance. Further, I will debate with you whether repentance regarding behavior or lifestyle can save. Why? Because we agree Paul's statements and that of others are regarding works of the Law of Moses. I can show you in the Pentateuch where you get your notions regarding repentance being salvation, and this is the notion Paul wants to disabuse you of. I say this respectfully.
 
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