BilliardsBall
Veteran Member
Per Romans: The point of difference has been your claim Paul was writing to Jews and Gentiles. My argument has been the audience of the text were Romans. The text is Greco-Roman. It is thoroughly Hellenistic, demonstrated by the literary structure and rhetoric employed. This indicates who the target audience was. I don’t think this is a complicated or controversial argument. Where the letter was read is not relevant. Who else was in attendance is not relevant. Imagine a sermon in a Church where the Pastor focuses on tax evasion. Those who are in attendance who don’t pay taxes are not the focus of the sermon. It applies to a specific group. If someone in the audience thought the Pastor’s sermon was directed to ten year olds, he would be wrong, regardless if there were ten year olds in the pews.
Paul wrote to one of the following groups:
*intended for Gentiles only
*intended for Jews only
*intended for Jews and Gentiles both
Recall there was an edict to expel Jews from Rome, with no distinction for we Messianic Jews, and that as Messianic Jews returned years after to fellowship with Gentile believers, there was displacement and discomfort. Many scholars believe Romans was written to address this for BOTH the Jews and Christians who would read and hear Paul’s letter.
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Per Matt 24:13: You keep focusing in eschatology. This is a mistake. It isn’t relevant to the topic. I think you’ve forgotten what the point originally was. Your original position was that man is totally dependent. There is nothing he can do in regard to his salvation. I presented Matt 24: 13 as a simply counter example.
“But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved”.
The verse indicates a person who does a thing (endure) shall be saved. On a basic level there is a Subject A who does thing B with positive result C. C is dependent on A’s act. The positive result C is indicated as ‘saved’. That is it in a nutshell. Arguing saved doesn’t mean saved, or that saved actually means “saved from physical tribulation” has no substance. The point remains a contradiction to your notion.
There’s a D after your C. Jesus returns to cut short the tribulation, Matthew 24. Let me help you:
He that endures the sufferings of the tribulation, and is still alive when I return to cut it short, I will rescue him from the tribulation personally, and personally end this time of judgment at the rapture!
I think your paraphrase is more like:
You see! Just like every other religion under Heaven, men must do works to show they are good enough to go a perfect Heaven.
Per 1 Peter 2: 5-9: You asked my opinion of the verses, focusing on gender and the meaning of the Greek pronouns used. I think the author of 1 Peter is referring to a group and in the case of verse 9 the attributes of the group taken in toto, not per any individual element of the whole. Why do I believe that? Because that is the way the original Greek speakers understood it and the way Christianity understood it for over 16 Centuries. I gave women not having the priesthood as a simple example. Women were never recognized as priests. The same could be said of children etc. Further, the contrary view is absurd. Under your stance Baha'is would be recognized as priests because their belief in Jesus. I don't think you understand the ramifications of the odd views you have adopted.
I didn’t ask your opinion “of the verses” from the Greek, I asked what in the Greek specifically indicates only men are in the priesthood of all believers, knowing as I do many experts in Greek (personally or by reputation) who say woman are in the priesthood of all believers. I think your answer from the Greek is “Women were never recognized as priests”.
I don’t know much of the Baha’i tenets, but I don’t think they claim they are born again Christians. Please tell me more.
Per the Penal Model: Calvin did invent it. The Penal Atonement Model is not in the scriptures. No one had heard of, contemplated or understood the atonement as the Penal Model prior to Calvin’s invention. It was adopted by certain elements of Reformed Christianity. Those same elements form the backdrop for Modern Evangelicalism. As I explained previously, if something new is introduced, it needs to be justified. Calvin never claimed prophesy or revelation for its creation. Calvin never claimed prophet status. It is simply an atonement theory produced by his understanding of the Bible. Unfortunately, it is irrational. I gave you one simple critique to demonstrate the point. You have no rebuttal. It is also immoral. The Penal Model turns Deity into an evil being or at best an amoral one. In either case, something unworthy of devotion. Why do you hold to an irrational and evil system? Why do you worship an evil god? This all follows from adopting the evil absurdity of Calvin’s Penal Model.
I can accept your concept. Let’s use the hypothesis method. It is true that 1) the penal model is an invention of man 2) is not in the scriptures. If your statements are true, let’s review some verses in the correct light [capital emphases mine]:
Isaiah 53:6 - "the Lord has NOT laid on him the iniquity of us all."
Isaiah 53:12 - "yet he DID NOT bear the sin of many, and DIDN’T make intercession for the transgressors."
Romans 3:25 – “whom God DID NOT set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had NOT passed over the sins that were previously committed, that he might NOT be just and NOT the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus"
2 Corinthians 5:21 - "For our sake he DIDN’T made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."
Galatians 3:13 - "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by NOT becoming a curse for us -- for it is NOT written, Cursed is everyone who is hanged on a tree."
Hebrews 10 – “For IT IS possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins. Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, But a body You have NOT prepared for Me.”
The basics of Logic: Below is the syllogism:
1) The Bible is perfect
2) Master Billiards is imperfect
3) What is imperfect cannot understand what is perfect
4) Therefore, Master Billiards cannot understand the Bible.
You now claim premise 3 is “illogical”. You give a definition of perfection and then ask why you, being imperfect, cannot understand the definition. This does not relate to premise 3. The question has no value. Premise 3 is not about an inability to understand the definition of a word. It is about what is “ im”-perfect not being able to understand what is perfect. There is a conceptual limitation with the one that does not apply to the other. This is what is indicated with the prefix, meaning ”not” perfect. Imperfection and perfection are conceptually distinct. To claim the one has the same traits as the other is to fail to understand this basic point. The syllogism holds. You stand condemned by your own silly notions.
Because you have deified the Bible and granted it perfection, and therefore on par with God you have cut yourself off from understanding it. None of your assertions about its meaning have value.
You have raised a number of issues.
What is imperfect cannot understand what is perfect
First issue: you might not know what “understand” means, that is, you might not understand “understand”.
Second issue: I understand what “perfect” means and have also accomplished some tasks perfectly before. That is where you say, “Master Billiards is imperfect” is not a true state. I’m not wholly, completely imperfect. I’ve accomplished many tasks perfectly, thought about things perfectly and so on, before.
Third issue: I would never say to any Christian or non-Christian what you wrote to me: “None of your assertions about its [the Bible’s] meaning have value.” Are you going to apologize for that statement?
Fourth issue: Saying the Bible is perfect, after decades of study and long contemplation, isn’t deifying the Bible. Nor is saying any particular thing is perfect deifying that thing. Stop being absurd.
Per faith and works: Saying Faith is not one of the 613 Mosaic Laws is a non sequitur. Faith precedes the Mosaic Law and extends beyond it.
You said I had a false dichotomy with faith and works, where Paul says they are indeed diametrically opposed. You must have forgotten you wrote, “You don’t understand, Paul is referring to the laws of Moses.” Works aren’t grace, and they aren’t faith. “Thou must exhibit grace is not in the Mosaic Law” nor is “Thou must have faith”. Ask a rabbi if you don’t believe me.
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Heaven is a utopia.
2. Imperfect people would ruin a utopia (and per YOUR syllogism, cannot even UNDERSTAND a perfect utopia).
3. Imperfect people will not go to Heaven.
I urge you to consider that rejecting my syllogism is surely nothing less than rejecting your earlier ones!
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The above is not a syllogism. They are just three statements.
Allow me to help you, if I may:
Heaven is a perfect place.
All of its citizens are perfect.
No imperfect people are among its citizens.
PS. I asked to confine our topic to one thing. Which thing do you wish to discuss next? Hopefully, my statement just above.