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Paul and Jesus

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
As with the last thread I posted, this one deals with the three pillars that Robert Price has constructed for the Jesus-myth. His second pillar claims that none of the Epistle writers are aware of a recent historical Jesus. Others have claimed that the Epistle writers didn't even seem to be aware that Jesus ever was a human being. My argument is that Paul knew that Jesus had died recently and recognized him as a human being.

Price's second pillar, that the Epistle writers show no evidence for a recent historical Jesus, is probably the weakest of his pillars. Before moving into whether or not the Epistles give evidence for Jesus, a brief examination of the Epistles are needed.

There are thirteen letters credited to Paul (at one time, Hebrews was also credited to Paul, but scholars have now abandoned the idea of it being of Pauline origin). Of those thirteen letters, seven are now deemed to be undisputedly genuine; three are debated; and the last three are doubtful. Outside the letter now included in the New testament, we know that Paul had written other letters as well. For instance, in 1 Corinthians 5:9, Paul refers to a previous letter he had written to that church.

The reason for Paul writing his letters, for the most part, was to deal with problems that had arisen with particular churches, and were often produced in haste. Because of that, there was little reason for Paul to impart initial knowledge of jesus, especially since that sort of information was presumed to have been known. Interestingly, as many scholars have noted, if Paul had not found a problem with how the Corinthians were practicing the Lord's Supper, we would have never known that Paul supported or even knew of it. What is important to remember here is that Paul was either addressing Churches he had already visited or were already Christians. Thus, there is little reason to assume that Paul would have had any reason to mention much about the life of Jesus, as those churches would have already been introduced to that knowledge.

Further though, Paul, who believed that the end of this earthly kingdom was near, was more interested in the death and resurrection of Jesus. So it is of little surprise that Paul is rather silent, in general, about jesus. Especially when we considered that Paul is also relatively silent about himself, the other apostles, as well as his meeting with the Risen Christ. However, this is somewhat expected as we see this to also be true with much of the Christian literature during the first few centuries.

However, there are certain things we can learn about jesus from Paul, showing that he did in fact know something about Jesus. According to Paul, like himself (Romans 11:1), Jesus was “of the see of Abraham (Galatians 3:16).” In addition, Paul tells us that jesus was his countryman, and Israelite (Jew) and that he was born “according to the flesh (Romans 9:3-5).” If there were any doubt of that, Paul had voiced that idea previously as well, stating that jesus was “born of a woman, born under the law (Galatians 4:4).” More so, we are told tat he is a descendant of David (Romans 1:3). So we can be sure that Paul believed Jesus to have been an actual human being.

Yet, that is not all we are told about Jesus. We see the suggestion that Jesus had been living not to far in the past. In Galatians 1:18-19, Paul tells us that he had met Cephas (Peter) who he identifies as an apostle, as well as James, who Paul calls the “brother of the Lord.” The Greek, in this case, gives us additional information.

Verse 18, as most scholars agree, tells us that Paul went to Peter not to just visit, but for the purpose of inquiry, to gain information about Jesus' ministry. The very fact that Peter, who was one of the disciples of Jesus, visited with Paul, makes it inconceivable to assume that Jesus had died in the distant path.

Turning to James, a brother of Jesus, we secure the fact that Jesus had died relatively recently. Now, there has ben some debate as to what exactly Paul meant when he called James Jesus' brother; however, the Greek makes it quite clear. The word used here is adelphos, which in classical and Hellenistic Greek meant blood brother. Thus, there is no reason to assume Paul meant anything else except that James wand jesus were brothers, which is supported as well in the Gospels and Josephus.

The final information that we will examine about jesus, that Paul tells us, is about his death. Most importantly, Paul tells us that Jesus was crucified (1 Corinthians 1:23; Galatians 3:1). This is important as we know that crucifixion was a Roman political method of execution reserved primarily for rebels and slaves. This is important as it places Jesus in a relative time and location.

Yet, this is not a full examination of Paul, such as his reference to Jesus command concerning divorce (1 Corinthians 7:10), but does show us beyond a doubt that Paul saw jesus as a human being who had lived recently.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
"Even if we had no other sources, we could still infer some things about Jesus from Paul’s letters. Paul clearly implies that Jesus existed as a human being (‘born of a woman’ Gal 4.4), was born a Jew (‘born under the Law’ Gal 4.4; cf. Rom 1.3) and had brothers (1 Cor 9.5; Gal 1.19). Paul also claims possible character traits for Jesus (cf. ‘meekness and gentleness’ 2 Cor 10.1; Jesus ‘did not please himself’ Rom 15.3) and he refers to the tradition of the institution of the Eucharist at the Last Supper (1 Cor 11.23– 25), taking place ‘at night’ (1 Cor 11.23). Above all, he refers very frequently to the fact that Jesus was crucified (1 Cor 1.23; 2.2; Gal 3.1 etc.), and at one point ascribes prime responsibility for Jesus’ death to (some) Jews (1 Thess 2.15). He also occasionally explicitly refers to Jesus’ teaching, e.g. on divorce (1 Cor 7.10– 11) and on Christian preachers or missionaries claiming support (1 Cor 9.14). The precise extent of Paul’s knowledge of Jesus traditions is uncertain. "

Tuckett, Christopher (2001). “Sources and Methods.” In Bockmuehl, Markus (Ed.) The Cambridge Companion to Jesus. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, pp. 121-137.


“These are two separate assertions: (a) that Saul did not know much and (b) that he did not care much and they are independent of each other. I wish to concentrate here on “a,” the view that Saul had an empty head as far as the historical Yeshua was concerned. It is preposterous.

Recall what we already know from the chronology of Saul’s religious career. He was a persecutor of the Yeshua-faith. Whatever else that may have entailed, he certainly was in position to learn a lot about Yeshua. How he assimilated that information is another matter, but recall that three years after his conversion he secretly went up to Jerusalem and spent fifteen days living with Peter (Cephas) and, also, he met Yacov (Galatians 1:18– 19). Now, in more than a fortnight of intensive discussion with Peter he must have been tutored in all the basic actions and sayings of Yeshua as Peter knew them. Further, Saul obviously was being examined not only on his own character, but on his knowledge and ideology. The one-time audience with Yacov, direct heir to the headship of the Yeshua-faith, has the appearance of a viva voce examination of a doctoral candidate by a stern External Examiner. Saul passes, manifestly: he knows his Yeshua and his interpretations are within the acceptable boundaries of the plasticities of the time.

And recall that fourteen years later, Saul went up again to Jerusalem and this time went through a complex negotiation with the Jerusalem believers, headed by Yacov, Peter and John, the son of Zebedee. Whatever else occurred there, each side clearly expressed its knowledge and interpretation of the life of Yeshua of Nazareth and, again, Saul’s work received the imprimatur (Gal 2:1– 9). Saul may not have enjoyed his relations with Jerusalem, but he certainly was informed about the life of Yeshua.

Further, he continued to have interactions – sometimes unpleasant ones – with representatives of the Jerusalem church and probably with other Yeshua groups from outside of Jerusalem (Philippians, Galatians, Second Corinthians, all stem from such occurrences). He knew not just the life story of Yeshua, but was directly acquainted with at least one, and probably all, of the brothers of Yeshua. His third visit to Jerusalem, which resulted in his imprisonment, certainly gave him a chance to become closely reacquainted with the Jerusalem church. And Saul was knowledgeable about (and mostly horrified by) other traditions of the Yeshua-faith, especially those that were strongly spiritualist (see Second Corinthians). Each version of the faith of course implied not only a different complex of immediate religious experiences on the part of the specific community of believers, but also variant traditions of what characterized Yeshua while still on earth. Thus, Saul, being as knowledgeable as anyone among the Yeshua-followers about the varieties of the faith, was inevitably highly knowledgeable of the traditions concerning the historical Yeshua.

These inferences derive from direct evidence in the epistles of Saul. They should not even slightly surprise us, given our background knowledge of late Second Temple Judaism. For the religiously alert – and the Yeshua followers were nothing if not hyperattentive – the world was one great spider web, the hub of which was Jerusalem, and any motion any place on the web was transmitted through the entire reactive lattice. Even if we had not the compelling evidence of Saul’s ties to the centre, we still would assume he was picking up, almost tactilely, every variant of Yeshua’s life story and the vibratory signals of each significant variation of interpretation. Saul himself was constantly sending and receiving letters, detailing messengers and instructing emissaries; communication was his business. So, Saul knew his Yeshua.”

Akenson, Donald Harman. Saint Saul : A Skeleton Key to the Historical Jesus.
Montreal: McGill-Queen's University Press, 2000. pp. 171-173.
 

Ilisrum

Active Member
There shouldn't even be a debate about this. It seems quite logical to assume that Paul knew quite a bit about Jesus. I remain doubtful that the tradition of the "Lord's supper" goes back to Jesus himself or the Jerusalem community, since Paul says specifically that he received it "from the Lord", suggesting a visionary experience. I can't read Greek myself, so I my be overstepping my bounds a bit here.

Mythicist apologists who claim otherwise are reading too much into Paul. Skeptical pleading is still special pleading.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Turning to James, a brother of Jesus, we secure the fact that Jesus had died relatively recently. Now, there has ben some debate as to what exactly Paul meant when he called James Jesus' brother; however, the Greek makes it quite clear. The word used here is adelphos, which in classical and Hellenistic Greek meant blood brother. Thus, there is no reason to assume Paul meant anything else except that James wand jesus were brothers, which is supported as well in the Gospels and Josephus.

The final information that we will examine about jesus, that Paul tells us, is about his death. Most importantly, Paul tells us that Jesus was crucified (1 Corinthians 1:23; Galatians 3:1). This is important as we know that crucifixion was a Roman political method of execution reserved primarily for rebels and slaves. This is important as it places Jesus in a relative time and location.

Yet, this is not a full examination of Paul, such as his reference to Jesus command concerning divorce (1 Corinthians 7:10), but does show us beyond a doubt that Paul saw jesus as a human being who had lived recently.

Paul's views came mostly from the Paraclete and the apostles. There is no evidence that he ever met Jesus or even that he was an eyewitness to any events.

Again this is not the best witness since he was neither a disciple nor an apostle that is specifically mentioned.

I should think one would look to Peter and John as eyewitnesses.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
There shouldn't even be a debate about this. It seems quite logical to assume that Paul knew quite a bit about Jesus. I remain doubtful that the tradition of the "Lord's supper" goes back to Jesus himself or the Jerusalem community, since Paul says specifically that he received it "from the Lord", suggesting a visionary experience. I can't read Greek myself, so I my be overlapping my bounds a bit here.
Paul received everything he preached "from the Lord."
Jesus said, "Do this in remembrance of me."
And the Lord's Supper was already being practiced when he wrote 1 Co 11:23-30.
Why do you think the Lord's Supper does not go back to Jesus?
Mythicist apologists who claim otherwise are reading too much into Paul. Skeptical pleading is still special pleading.
 

outhouse

Atheistically
John is not very historical and much controvery surrounds its content, It seems to have been written over time and theres a high pssibility of more then one author and if any of it is from john is a guess at best.
 

Oberon

Well-Known Member
What about the gospels of Matthew and John? What about the letters of Peter, James, Jude and John?

Am I misunderstanding you on this?

Matthew and John were both written anonymously. The letters were likewise not written by james, peter, and so forth (based on things like dating).
 

Ilisrum

Active Member
Paul received everything he preached "from the Lord."
Jesus said, "Do this in remembrance of me."
And the Lord's Supper was already being practiced when he wrote 1 Co 11:23-30.
Why do you think the Lord's Supper does not go back to Jesus?

The reason I'm skeptical is because Jesus was a Jew. The idea of eating flesh and drinking blood is alien to Jewish culture, but has correlation in pagan religions. Paul may have been alluding to a historical event ("on the night he was delivered up"), and retrojected his own vision into the context. The Lord's Supper with bread and wine certainly was being practiced in Paul's Gentile churches from an early date, but no evidence exists showing that it was practiced in the Jewish congregations that early. The ritual described is the Didache is markedly different and much simpler.

"Now concerning the Eucharist, give thanks this way. First, concerning the cup:We thank thee, our Father, for the holy vine of David Thy servant, which Thou madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever.. And concerning the broken bread:
We thank Thee, our Father, for the life and knowledge which Thou madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever. Even as this broken bread was scattered over the hills, and was gathered together and became one, so let Thy Church be gathered together from the ends of the earth into Thy kingdom; for Thine is the glory and the power through Jesus Christ for ever..But let no one eat or drink of your Eucharist, unless they have been baptized into the name of the Lord; for concerning this also the Lord has said, "Give not that which is holy to the dogs." (Roberts)

I'm not a mythicist and I'm not saying that Jesus didn't do or say something similar.The Eucharist is central to Christian theology and identity, I just personally believe it's a Pauline invention.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Paul's views came mostly from the Paraclete and the apostles. There is no evidence that he ever met Jesus or even that he was an eyewitness to any events.
That wasn't at all what I was saying. What I was saying is that Paul believed that Jesus was a historical figure. That is in direct contrast to what some Jesus-mythers are saying. Paul is a great source in this though because he met with disciples of Jesus and the brother of Jesus.

Again this is not the best witness since he was neither a disciple nor an apostle that is specifically mentioned.
Yet he was a brother of Jesus and a leader in the early Jesus movement. He is great in this account because he confirms that Jesus was a recent figure in the time of Paul, since he still had a brother living.


I should think one would look to Peter and John as eyewitnesses.
[/quote] If I could, that would be amazing. The problem, we have nothing from them. Both of them, as far as we know, were illiterate peasants who never wrote a thing. Others have explained this more.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
The reason I'm skeptical is because Jesus was a Jew. The idea of eating flesh and drinking blood is alien to Jewish culture,
The Jews were required to eat the flesh of the fellowship sacrifice in the Levitical law.
And they were required to eat the flesh of the lamb whose blood was smeared on their doorposts the night the angel of death "passed over" them.
but has correlation in pagan religions. Paul may have been alluding to a historical event ("on the night he was delivered up"), and retrojected his own vision into the context.
And you would know this how?
The Lord's Supper with bread and wine certainly was being practiced in Paul's Gentile churches from an early date, but no evidence exists showing that it was practiced in the Jewish congregations that early. The ritual described is the Didache is markedly different and much simpler.
And what bearing do the Jewish congregations have on the Lord's Supper going back to Jesus?
"Now concerning the Eucharist, give thanks this way. First, concerning the cup:
We thank thee, our Father, for the holy vine of David Thy servant, which Thou madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever.. And concerning the broken bread:
We thank Thee, our Father, for the life and knowledge which Thou madest known to us through Jesus Thy Servant; to Thee be the glory for ever. Even as this broken bread was scattered over the hills, and was gathered together and became one, so let Thy Church be gathered together from the ends of the earth into Thy kingdom; for Thine is the glory and the power through Jesus Christ for ever..But let no one eat or drink of your Eucharist, unless they have been baptized into the name of the Lord; for concerning this also the Lord has said, "Give not that which is holy to the dogs." (Roberts)
There's nothing Christocentric in any of that.
Jesus said the cup of wine was his blood of the new covenant.
Jesus said the bread was his body given for them.
The Didache omits the central meaning of the Lord's Supper, which is still found in the Christian churches.
I'm not a mythicist and I'm not saying that Jesus didn't do or say something similar.The Eucharist is central to Christian theology and identity, I just personally believe it's a Pauline invention.
Pretty much the whole NT is a "Pauline invention" straight from the revelation of Jesus Christ.

And it's preposterous, to say the least, that the very liturgy which the NT reports Jesus using at the Last Supper is a "Pauline invention."

From what "scholar" did you get all this misinformation?
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
John is not very historical and much controvery surrounds its content, It seems to have been written over time and theres a high pssibility of more then one author and if any of it is from john is a guess at best.
This is pure conjecture. . .and the only "guess at best" here.
 
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Ilisrum

Active Member
The Jews were required to eat the flesh of the fellowship sacrifice in the Levitical law.
And they were required to eat the flesh of the lamb whose blood was smeared on their doorposts the night the angel of death "passed over" them.

There's a distinct difference between eating animal sacrifice and symbolic cannibalism. I don't quite understand where you're coming from here.

And you would know this how?
It's common knowledge that several of the mystery cults practiced rituals similar to the Christian Eucharist. I don't claim any special knowledge.

And what bearing do the Jewish congregations have on the Lord's Supper going back to Jesus?

Well, Jesus' early followers were Jews, not proto-Christians like some Christian apologists imagine them. We don't have alot of information on early Jewish-Christianity so it's alot of guesswork. The New Testament itself does show some friction between the Pauline and Jerusalem camps, however.

There's nothing Christocentric in any of that.
Jesus said the cup of wine was his blood of the new covenant.
Jesus said the bread was his body given for them.

The Didache omits the central meaning of the Lord's Supper, which is still found in the Christian churches.

Which is an article of Christian faith.

Pretty much the whole NT is a "Pauline invention" straight from the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Which is why I'm not a Christian.

And it's preposterous, to say the least, that the very liturgy which the NT reports Jesus using at the Last Supper is a "Pauline invention."

From what "scholar" did you get all this misinformation?

It's obvious that you're an apologist for the Christian faith and will reject any sort of critical examination into the scripture or tradition. That's OK. I personally don't see much continuity between Jesus and what eventually became "Christianity". Many critical liberal scholars agree with that on one level or another.
 

smokydot

Well-Known Member
There's a distinct difference between eating animal sacrifice and symbolic cannibalism. I don't quite understand where you're coming from here.
You've got the wrong symbolism here.

The Jews ate of the flesh of the animal sacrifice to symbolize their participation in the benefits of the sacrifice,
which were forgiveness of sin and fellowship with God and the High Priest who offered it.
This was the OT sacrificial meal.

The Lord's Supper is the NT sacrificial meal where the flesh and blood of the NT sacrifice are received, symbolizing participation in the benefits of Jesus' sacrifice through faith in him, which benefits are forgiveness of sin and restoration of fellowship with God, and with the High Priest who offered it, Jesus the Christ.

The symbolism is the same as it was for the OT, participation in the benefits of the sacrifice.
It does not symbolize cannabalism.
It's common knowledge that several of the mystery cults practiced rituals similar to the Christian Eucharist. I don't claim any special knowledge.
Well, Jesus' early followers were Jews, not proto-Christians like some Christian apologists imagine them. We don't have alot of information on early Jewish-Christianity so it's alot of guesswork. The New Testament itself does show some friction between the Pauline and Jerusalem camps, however.
But remember, the question is what does any of that have to do with the Lord's Supper going back to Jesus.
And the answer is: nothing.
So there is no reason to doubt that the Lord's Supper goes back to Jesus,
when you have Jesus saying, "Do this in remembrance of me," and you have it being practiced in the NT Corinthian church.
Which is an article of Christian faith.
Which is why I'm not a Christian.
It's obvious that you're an apologist for the Christian faith and will reject any sort of critical examination into the scripture or tradition. That's OK. I personally don't see much continuity between Jesus and what eventually became "Christianity". Many critical liberal scholars agree with that on one level or another.
Yes, I believe, as Jesus did, that the Scriptures are the Word of God written.

So we will not agree on anything that disagrees with the Scriptures.
 
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fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
That's not what Polycarp and Clement say.
Most likely, they were wrong. We have no evidence from Matthew who wrote it. Actually, there seems to be a purposeful attempt to leave authorship unknown. More telling, when the author of Matthew introduces Matthew, the tax collector (the supposed author), there is no evidence that this individual is the writer. Actually, it seems unlikely because there is no distinction. Matthew is spoken about just as any other character.

As for John, a little research ends up showing that it was debated as to what John it was. It wasn't until later on that which John it was was actually agreed upon. Because of this debate, it seems unlikely that he was the writer, since they don't even know who it is. More so, it is unlikely that John was still alive. The first followers, and closest followers of Jesus didn't seem to end up too well for the most part. And even if John laid low, by the time the Gospel of John was written, there is little reason to believe that he was alive. In addition, internal evidence suggest multiple authors of the text.

This isn't even mentioning that there is little reason to believe that the Disciples of Jesus were even literate. Just purely from a statistical point of view, only about 1-3%, in that area, were literate (some push this number as high up as 10%, but for the most part, that is an empire wide statistic). For the most part, this was saved for the elite. That is why such a wide use of scribes occurs. More so, we even see Paul using scribes by his own admissions.

Polycarp and Clement anyway were quite separated from the time of the writing. There is little reason to believe they knew the disciples, and really only are relaying tradition.
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
The reason I'm skeptical is because Jesus was a Jew. The idea of eating flesh and drinking blood is alien to Jewish culture, but has correlation in pagan religions.

Which ones?
 
A

angellous_evangellous

Guest
So there is no reason to doubt that the Lord's Supper goes back to Jesus, when you have Jesus saying, "Do this in remembrance of me," and you have it being practiced in the NT Corinthian church.

Was it now? Didn't Paul say that the Corinthians were not really practicing the Lord's Supper for a variety of reasons?

This verse is corrective, not declarative.
 
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