Thus, according to the Christian definition of a "prophet" he was a "prophet." According to Torath Mosheh he was a false navi, based on the defintions given earlier.
According to you, reading a Christian English translation "he without a doubt, he prophesied the death of the disobedient prophet." According to me, reading the Hebrew text, that is not at all what happened and your definition of what I prophet is doesn't match the Hebrew text.
Thus, Christianity has one view of their English translations and Torath Mosheh Jews have a compeletely different view based on the most ancient and authoratative Hebrew texts.
Based on all of the above, of course we are not going to see eye to eye.
LOL... Of course.
Let's agree to disagree about what we know because I read the Hebrew text. It clearly explained what happened, why, and when someone was who they were.
That didn't answer the point IMO. It declared he was an "old prophet" and, indeed, did pronounce judgement.
Maybe you don't understand it, based on your comment below.
I guess we can agree to disagree.
Actually not true. Dawith never claimed that Hashem told him to say something that Hashem never told him to say. I.e. the definition of a false navi is one who claims Hashem told them to say or do something Hashem never told them to do. Further, Christians have a set of views about "King David" based on Christian translation and Christian exegesis. Torath Mosheh Jews have a completely different view of Dawith Hamelekh based on the Hebrew text and also thousands of years of Torath Mosheh explaination of what the text means.
For example, if you are talking about Bat-sheva this video, in English, may explain the view of Torath Mosheh Jews on this.
WOW... I listened to it. It looks like a very liberal attempt to white-wash what King David (PBUH) did because he is so esteemed by the person in the video.
It was full of assumptions and unsupported positions.
Yes, there is no particular word for woman vs wife at all (as it is in Greek too)-- but it also can be "wife".
Although it is true that there was a "custom"to give a divorce - there is also the law that says if the husband dies, the brother gives the seed so that the line can continue. Is there a law in the Torah that supports that position?
Additionally
This site doesn't agree
https://www.myjewishlearning.com/article/bathsheba/
This site doesn't agree
Bathsheba: Bible | Jewish Women's Archive
So, in reality, you are offering a "possibility" but you will have Jewish detractors to your position.
The parable, I'm sure, can be interpreted in a variety of ways. But what can't be ignored is that "perception of people" as the video suggested certainly doesn't merit the death of a child. So a more grievous sin had to have been committed.
As you say, we will probably agree to disagree but there are Jewish contingencies that I posted that would agree with the supposed Christian viewpoint. I would rather say it is a viewpoint as described in the TaNaKh