You're under the presumption the "Lake of Fire" is somehow not connected to Gen-Hinnom, which Jesus speaks of in very similar terms.
I have no doubt there they are connected in a metaphorical sense, just not in a literal sense.
It could very well be the same exact thing, just a specific description.
And, it could very well be that they are not. "Could be" isn't evidence. Unless there is evidence that they are in fact one in the same, then I will dismiss such speculation. It is more logical to conclude that Jesus was speaking metaphorically because that would be consistent with A) how he normally spoke, B) the chronology of the scriptural referenes to Gehenna and the Lake of Fire, and C) the scriptural accounts of death being the wages of sin.
With that said, we don't know what "Hinnom" means exactly. It could very well be the exact equivalent of "Lake of Fire", but "Valley of Fire",
The Valley of Hinnom was named after a person or family. The full name is the Valley of the Son of Hinnom. It originally had no great meaning beyond that and has nothing to do with "fire". This is from an Israeli tourism site:
The full name of this low-lying land is the Valley of the Son of Hinnom whoever that may have been. Knowing nothing about either son or father, we can only conjecture that Hinnom probably bequeathed his son some rather fertile farmland in this valley that surrounds old Jerusalem on the southwest. The valleys name in Hebrew is Gei Ben-Hinnom or simply Gei-Hinnom. In light of the sacrifices to the fire god, the latter name gave rise to the word Gehenna, which over time became a synonym for hell.
Early Jewish sages saw Isaiah 31:9 which says Gods fire is in Zion and furnace in Jerusalem as a reference to this valley, which they described as the gates of hell. The valleys other biblical name, Topheth, means inferno, adding to its image as a place of eternal torment.
Valley of Hinnom
and it just so happens that Enoch uses the expression "Valley of fire" to define it.
It doesn't matter that Enoch described it that way, because his description was most likely colored by what the Valley was already known for during his time. Again, the Book of Jeremiah and 2 Chronicles PREDATE the writing of Enoch by centuries!
A "Lake" and a "Valley" of fire are both the same thing if they're made of fire.
Not necessarily. First of all, there is huge difference between a "lake" and a "valley". A lake is defined as a large, inland body of fresh or salt water, or a pool of liquid of considerable size, surrounded by land. A "valley" is defined as an elongated lowland between ranges of mountains, hills or other uplands often having a river or stream running along the bottom. IF a valley has water in it, it would more likely resemble a river, not a lake. Secondly, even to many fundamentalists who take on a literalist viewpoint, the term "Lake of Fire" generally conjures an image of a pool of molten lava.
13. The Lake of Fire Judgement Age
When A Sinner Goes To Hell. . .
WHAT is HELL, HADES, SHEOL?
So why must we assume that the Gen-Hinnom Jesus was referring to was only in reference to the place where the Canaanites were burning babies exactly?
1) Because no other assumptions fits the facts. 2) It doesn't matter where the literal Gehenna that he is referring to is because he is only using it as a symbolic reference for "burning".
You are assuming that those books don't predate the accounts in the Tanakh for one thing.
That's not an assumption, it's a fact (according to most biblical scholars).
We simply don't know when Enoch was written.
The older sections (mainly in the Book of the Watchers) are estimated to date from about 300 BC, and the latest part (Book of Parables) probably was composed at the end of the 1st century BC. -
Fahlbusch E., Bromiley G.W. The Encyclopedia of Christianity: PSh page 411
As we see with the Septuagint, there's a big difference between SON Of Hinnom, and Valley of Hinnom....
No, there isn't! It's the same valley.
Many works like Mark are given a late dating
Be that as it may, speculation is not evidence. Unless you have some evidence to suggest that the writings contained in Enoch and the War Scroll "predate" the writings of Jeremiah and 2 Chronicles (despite what most biblical scholars say), then you're not making a rational argument.
WHY would they refer to their idea of hell as the same name as Gen-Hinnom? That's a very important question.
And that question has already been answered by the fact that it was a place of burning. It's the same reason why Jesus symbolically connects the two places.
Or maybe "Valley of burning" simply does not refer to one place?
Speculation is not evidence!
It's illogical to assume it would. Again, it would be like assuming "Hell's kitchen" has to mean the place where Hell's food it cooked. Obviously the name was used for more than one place.
This is a non-sequitur!
I do. I simply don't see your view as the more "logical" view.
It is more logical by virtue of the fact that it is supported by more evidence, and the professional opinion of biblical scholars. Yours is supported by neither!
Your view implies everything that refers to it as a firey place for souls as purely "metaphorical" automatically, as if a plain reading won't do.
A plain reading (as in completely literal) does NOT do, because it relies on a hypocrisy and allows for biblical inconsistency. If you want to use a "plain reading", then you should also plainly understand that Jesus expect everyone to cut off their limbs and gouge out their eyes, because that's what he plainly says!
Only by interpreting scripture inconsistently and completely arbitrary, in such a way to ignore context altogether should one be expected to interpret Jesus' comments about hellfire as "literal". The wages of sin is death!
It's very relevant because Jesus wouldn't use such imagery of it as a place of fire.
Why not? According to you Enoch did, and all the other Jews did. Why wouldn't Jesus?
Early Jewish sages saw Isaiah 31:9 which says Gods fire is in Zion and furnace in Jerusalem as a reference to this valley, which they described as the gates of hell. The valleys other biblical name, Topheth, means inferno, adding to its image as a place of eternal torment.
Actually it very well predates the Masoretic. And so do the Targums. Thus we have nothing but the Septuagint to enforce your OT view.
The oldest Tanakh manuscript in Hebrew and Aramaic dates to the 10th century CE.
Memories of Ancient Israel: An Introduction to Biblical History - Ancient ... - Philip R. Davies - Google Books
And what does the Septuagint say? It says the valley of the SON of Hinnom. Hmmm. Is that the exact same thing? I don't think so.
It doesn't matter what you THINK, it only matter's what th evidence shows. Istanbul used to be called Constantinople! Names change over time! But when referring to them as they were in the past, you don't call them what they are know as today! A change in name doesn't alter it's meaning.
Gehenna (Greek γέεννα, Gehinnom (Rabbinical Hebrew: גהנום/גהנם and Yiddish Gehinnam, are terms derived from a place outside ancient Jerusalem known in the Hebrew Bible as the Valley of the Son of Hinnom (Hebrew: גֵיא בֶן־הִנֹּם or גיא בן-הינום one of the two principal valleys surrounding the Old City.
Gehenna - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
I think the idea that it's a purely metaphorical description is illogical and inconsistent, and based on fallacious logic.
Such as?
Illogical HOW? Inconsistent with WHAT?
It would be illogical and inconsistent to assume that they would simply use a metaphor of one of the many "Gen Hinnoms" (called SON of Hinnom in our earliest copies) where children were burned to define a place where the Soul is destroyed if it weren't an actual physical supernatural place they believed in.
We'll have to agree to disagree on that point. I think think there is any logic to this argument.
They aren't, but they have very solid reasoning for their points which you are trying to call "illogical" and "inconsistent".
Correct. You and I have very different definitions of what constitutes "solid reasoning".
You're missing the point. Your argument entails that the Jews just suddenly made up this concept and went with it as the mainstream view all of the sudden.
Negative. I am saying that the concept developed overtime through what was originally a "metaphor" (as is often the case). Just like how the concept of "Christmas" as a Christian holiday changed from what it originally was (a pagan celebration).