sandy whitelinger
Veteran Member
I asked if in verse 5 is the author talking to/about King David. You answered:
I find thid interesting on this point and this is purely speculation on my part and not based on tradition or scriptural interpretation. It's just something that makes me go hmmmm!
If it is accepted that the psalm refers to David (and I might do that but not limit it just to David) then in verse one he was told to sit at the right hand of G-d and until G-d made David's enemies his footstool.
It would seem that David would have a problem with obedience because by verse 5 David was no longer sitting but fighting and had relegated G-d to helping David by fighting at Davids' right hand.
How is it that David had assumed the position that G-d held in verse 1? It seems that David has relegated G-d to being his co-pilot.
jewscout said:yes because, it seems to me, 2 different characters are talking
Verse 1, G-d
Verse 5, the author
I find thid interesting on this point and this is purely speculation on my part and not based on tradition or scriptural interpretation. It's just something that makes me go hmmmm!
If it is accepted that the psalm refers to David (and I might do that but not limit it just to David) then in verse one he was told to sit at the right hand of G-d and until G-d made David's enemies his footstool.
It would seem that David would have a problem with obedience because by verse 5 David was no longer sitting but fighting and had relegated G-d to helping David by fighting at Davids' right hand.
How is it that David had assumed the position that G-d held in verse 1? It seems that David has relegated G-d to being his co-pilot.