Question not debate

[McBell]

The Bible is inspired by God and therefore what it contains is not the error prone thoughts of men. (2 Timothy 3:16,17) Jesus accepted the scriptures as a product of God's holy spirit, not the work of men.

ah.
Fanatic.

Never mind me then.

 

[te_lanus]

The Bible is inspired by God and therefore what it contains is not the error prone thoughts of men. (2 Timothy 3:16,17)

Then explain to me why almost all translations of the bible are based from Greek text that comes from after 300AD. Me ask it because me have read a biography of one of the translators of the NIV (me can't, for the love of man, remember the papers name, will have to ask the prof, for the paper again), and he state, that they had a look at earlier manuscripts but it contained a lot of stuff, and was full of errors, that wasn't present in almost any ofthe later manuscripts. Also why was Revelation only accepted as part of the Bible very late on? to quote Eusebius:

And, in addition, as I said, the Apocalypse of John, if it seems right. (This last as I said, is rejected by some, but others count it among the recognized books - Ecclesiastical History 3.25.1-7

And why was The Letter to the Laodiceans, was almost in every bible produced for almost 1200 years, and then suddenly after that just get thrown out. Same with the Deutro-canonical Works Up to 1725 it was in every bible and suddenly it is thrown out.

• Did God suddenly decide that He no longer likes these books and had to be removed
• Bibles with these books in is not the word of God and fully Inspired
• Man has had a hand in it and only chooses what he want to hear, and call what he wants to hear inspired.

 

[rusra02]

Then explain to me why almost all translations of the bible are based from Greek text that comes from after 300AD. Me ask it because me have read a biography of one of the translators of the NIV (me can't, for the love of man, remember the papers name, will have to ask the prof, for the paper again), and he state, that they had a look at earlier manuscripts but it contained a lot of stuff, and was full of errors, that wasn't present in almost any ofthe later manuscripts. Also why was Revelation only accepted as part of the Bible very late on? to quote Eusebius:

And why was The Letter to the Laodiceans, was almost in every bible produced for almost 1200 years, and then suddenly after that just get thrown out. Same with the Deutro-canonical Works Up to 1725 it was in every bible and suddenly it is thrown out.

• Did God suddenly decide that He no longer likes these books and had to be removed
• Bibles with these books in is not the word of God and fully Inspired
• Man has had a hand in it and only chooses what he want to hear, and call what he wants to hear inspired.

You are referring to the Christian Greek scriptures, since the Hebrew canon was well established before Christ appeared.

Before the end of the second century, there is universal acceptance of the four Gospels, Acts, and 12 of the apostle Paul’s letters. Only a few of the smaller writings were doubted in certain areas. Likely this was so because such writings were limited in their initial circulation for one reason or another and thus took longer to become accepted as canonical.
One of the most interesting early catalogs is the fragment discovered by L. A. Muratori in the Ambrosian Library, Milan, Italy, and published by him in 1740.​

It seems that the original was composed in Greek many centuries before the Fragment text, which is a Latin translation of the Greek. Here is a clue that helps in dating the original. The Fragment mentions a non-Biblical book, the Shepherd, and states that a man named Hermas wrote it “very recently, in our times, in the city of Rome.” Scholars date the final writing of Hermas’ Shepherd between 140 and 155 C.E. Thus, you can see why the Greek-language original of the Latin Muratorian Fragment is dated to between 170 and 200 C.E.
Of course, the canonicity of the Bible books- their right to be included in the divine library-does not depend on their being mentioned in a certain ancient list. What gives evidence that the Bible’s books are the product of holy spirit is their content. They all support the authorship of Jehovah God and are in complete harmony.
Origen, about the year 230 C.E., accepted among the inspired Scriptures the books of Hebrews and James, both missing from the Muratorian Fragment. While he indicates that some doubted their canonical quality, this also shows that by this time, the canonicity of most of the Greek Scriptures was accepted, only a few doubting some of the less well-known epistles. Later, Athanasius, Jerome, and Augustine acknowledged the conclusions of earlier lists by defining as the canon the same 27 books that we now have.
I never have heard of the Letter to the Laodiceans. Paul mentioned a letter at Colossians 4:16, but it is not part of the inspired scriptures. I googled it and one source mentioned the earliest appearence of this book was early 6th century.

While it is true men wrote the books of the Christian scriptures, they did so under the operation of God's spirit. Thus all scripture is inspired by God, as 2 Timothy 3:16,17. The apocryphal books introduced were winnowed out like chaff from the wheat.

 

[OmarKhayyam]

"The apocryphal books introduced were winnowed out like chaff from the wheat."

By whom? To what purpose? Using what standard?

 

[rusra02]

"The apocryphal books introduced were winnowed out like chaff from the wheat."

By whom? To what purpose? Using what standard?

God. To preserve his Word of truth. (John 17:17). His standard.
The Bible reveals God's holy spirit led the early Christian congregation, just as Jesus promised. As God kept the Hebrew scriptures free from apocryphal writings, he did so also with the Christian scriptures. Paul's letters were considered part of sacred scripture during his lifetime. (2 Peter 3:15,16). Jehovah has preserved the sacred writings down till today, despite vicious and determined efforts to destroy or corrupt it. (Isaiah 40:8)