questfortruth
Well-Known Member
Your mistake is what you give me zero chance to be right. Imagine, that I am right, and take the text by face value.
-
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:- Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
- Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
- Access to private conversations with other members.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Riemann hypothesis, the most beautiful hypothesis
- Thread starter questfortruth
- Start date
VoidCat
Use any and all pronouns including neo and it/it's
Ah. Ok. What's that got to do with the z axis?
Nothing I know of.
But, once again, what you wrote is NOT correct. I can say this as a mathematician: if someone in a class gave me that as an argument, they would get a 0 on the assignment.
I'm not even talking about a professional paper. I am talking about how I would grade a homework assignment.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
It is my protection. If the text would be easily acceptable, it will be easily stolen.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
Perhaps, you are giving me no chance to be right. Imagine that I am right, and take the text at face value. Why are there no universally accepted mistakes in the Bible? Because theists love their Bible. Try to love my text as well.
More love - less mistakes.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
I have improved the paper for clarity, please reread.
You said that nobody shows you where your mistakes are.
I showed you.
Now you refuse to learn how they were mistakes and instead make excuses.
You were wrong. There is no 'imagining you are right'.
Your use of mathematical induction still fails on lines 24 and 25 of page 1. Knowing there are not finitely many violations is not enough to show there are not infinitely many.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
Yes, it is not obvious, but that I have demonstrated. This has proven Riemann Conjecture and disproven the Birch conjecture.
Nope. Not even close. Again, if someone had given me this as a basic homework assignment, it would have earned a 0.
You really need to go take some basic classes. Maybe even play with a few examples.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
No, I really have not. It is a basic technique. But it doesn't do what you seem to think it does. In particular, it cannot show anything about 'infinity'.
To do *that*, you need to use what is known as transfinite induction.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
Be more simple. Do not be scared by infinity. The Mathematical Induction works well for infinity.
I'm not scared at all by infinity. I work with it literally every day.
But mathematical induction doesn't do what you think. You would need transfinite induction for what you want.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
If to invent such strange things, the humankind will never prove the conjectures.
Any unnecessary essence is ruled out by Occam Razor.
ratiocinator
Lightly seared on the reality grill.
For goodness sake, just think of a simple of example with an infinite number of solutions to see how your 'argument' doesn't work.
Take sgn(x) - 1 = 0.
The number of solutions (X) of this is infinite (all positive numbers are solutions). X is not 1, or 2, or 3, or 10^1,000,000,000, but it is infinite. For any finite number K, X is not equal to K and is not equal to K+1. By your 'reasoning' it can't have any solutions, yet it quite obviously does have an infinite number of solutions.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
If one says that some equation U(y)=0
cannot have any finite number of solutions, then it has not an infinite number
of solutions as well. Hence, there are no solutions at all. The equation
sin(y)=0 has an infinite number of solutions; hence, one can write
down any finite number of solutions of this equation. For example, y_1=0,
y_2=Pi.
Our mind is trying to cover the entire range of numbers
by saying that for ${\rm sin}\,y=0$ the $X=\infty$, and there is no such
thing: any number can not have infinite value, as is seen from the
following argument.
questfortruth
Well-Known Member
Our mind is trying to cover the entire range of numbers
by saying that for ${\rm sin}\,y=0$ the $X=\infty$, and there is no such
thing: any number can not have infinite value, as is seen from the
following argument.
ratiocinator
Lightly seared on the reality grill.
You're just repeating yourself. You're confusing the total number of solutions, with finite subsets. Of course if there are an infinite number of solutions (and the total number can't be finite), then there are an infinite number of finite subsets of solutions.