No. Cubits of water can be directly converted to inches of mercury which is standard measure for pressure.
You have me there. Still, where you wondered with all that has no meaning I can discern.
No. We are using the definition "basis of science".
Come again? Historically, philosophy formed the basis of science and science retains aspects of that history, but it has moved to a point that it can survive independently. Metaphysics is philosophy. It is not science.
Prove it. Show evidence to support it.
Prove I know of no language called "Ancient Language"? Easy. I do not know of any language called "Ancient Language". Done.
Now you provide evidence that there is something called "Ancient Language". Don't worry about doing it. I am not interested in going on another ride to no where. I just wanted to remind you that it is your burden of proof. Not mine.
Are you seriously proposing that a book of incantation is sufficient to prove we understand Egyptian? Is a story that sounds like magic full of lost words sufficient to prove we understand Sumerian?
I am not proposing anything. I am saying that I have no idea what it is that you are proposing, explaining, defending, supporting, or concluding. Person after person here says more or less the same thing. Yet, your conclusion is that it is not you, it is us. We are simply too ignorant to understand what you are talking about. This is true whether what you claim has any substance or not.
Are you aware there is a growing chorus of educated people who are saying we wholly misunderstand ALL ancient languages. Surely this suggests they might be the same language just as a few ancient sources say.
Misunderstanding ancient languages is not inventing one that does not exist and then building an entire narrative around it as if it does exist. This smacks of equivocation. If there is a change in attitude about the understanding of language all the things you claim are then true. This does not follow and nothing you have presented would take us there.
Utter nonsense. The word "conspiracy" has several definitions but none of them apply to anything I'm saying, thinking, or suggesting. You are merely parroting what another poster has said who won't support his highly vacuous claim.
I think it is spot on. I may be saying what someone else has said, but I arrived at it independently.
Perhaps I used these words for the DIFFERENCES between them rather than the similarities. To us "water" is just a word. It was thrown on Helen Keller to teach her the meaning of the sign (symbol) for water. To ancient people "water" was something cold and wet than made things slippery and served this purpose in a sentence. It made things in the sentence "wet" when it was the subject and made one look for something wet when it was of predicate. The easiest way to learn Ancient Language is to forget deconstructing sentences and look for the literal meaning.
Water is a word that describes something that I know to be wet, of different temperatures, but often it feels cold to my touch, has substance and I can feel it, is clear, but can be cloudy and contain both suspended and dissolved matter and is a medium in which chemistry can take place. I doubt that the ancients had as expansive a vision of that word, but it would depend on which ancients and how ancient they were.
So now you are claiming that words have properties that are related to the object to which they represent. I know that words have connotations as well as definitions. The former seems to be what you mean.
Since I know of no language called "Ancient Language" and no one has provided any evidence that such a language exists, I see no way for me to learn it.