FunctionalAtheist
Hammer of Reason
Em, now lets see. I did not quite understand your position. :sorry1: That makes me feel silly. We agree that before the big bang (common usage) there was no time or space as we mere mortals can understand. Time and space are properties of this universe. The laws of physics did not exist as we know them either.Well, which one is it? If the singularity existed, either it was "sitting" there since eternal past and then expanded for whatever reason (a reason for which there is no logical sense...because there was nothing outside it to make it expand or nothing within it to make it expand)...or there was a point at which not even the singularity existed, and its existence was a space-time continuum that expanded at an instant from a point of non-existence. I prefer the latter, as it seems to make more logical sense because, if there was matter with no space, where would you put it? And if there was matter with no time, when would you put it??
Then there is a problem. First off, the "laws of physics", due to its degree of precision, had to be fine tuned from the very moment of the big bang, as you seem to agree with. In my opinion, there is no way you can get this kind of precision from anything other than a mind. Now I agree, there was no such thing as time and space before the expansion, no arguments here. The problem is, I am "man" enough to admit that for time and space to have a beginning, its originator had to transcend both time and space. That is the problem, you admitted that there was no such thing as time and space...well, what can give rise to both time and space? Well, the only word in the dictionary that is defined as having the exact qualities needed to fit the bill is God.
So far we agree on the above? Correct me if Im wrong.
I wonder if our understanding of the laws of physics is compatible in the sense that we can continue discussion without confusion. I do not believe very many people understand what a scientific model is (hypothesis, theory, law). The term law here does not have nearly the same meaning as the word law as used in either moral law or mans law. Most understand laws as authoritative limits, or, as to limit the behavior of a subject. I.e. you are not permitted to violate the law. This type of law can certainly be violated (free will). It is said by some that the laws of physics cannot be violated. This is not an absolute truth, but it does point out the difference in the usage of the terms. However many, i think, take this point as the universe does not have free will. That may in deed be true as the universe does not even have will, much less free. But it is not the reason a scientific law can not be violated.
The laws of physics do not limit the behavior of the natural; they are descriptions of the behavior of the natural. That is why they cannot be violated (for most places and most times), because they do not tell nature what to do, they merely describe what nature does. They are not necessary for nature to continue on. They exist only as models. In essence, they are very complex words or symbols. They are also observationally derived predictions of how nature will behave. This is how scientists verify the veracity of their models. If the model is accurate, the prediction is accurate, and visa verse. As accurate predictions accumulate, at some point we begin calling a successful hypothesis a theory. When a theory or part thereof consistently provides successful predictions at a multitude of observations and no failures to predict seem likely, the theory will be called a law (based on consensuses of the scientific community). When the laws of physics, or any scientific hypothesis, theory, or law break down or fail to predict, it means there is a piece of our puzzle missing, or not fitted just right, or maybe even totally off. This happens regularly for hypotheses. Total overturning of theory is rather rare, but tweaking continues for pieces of it. And it is extremely rare that a law has been overturned, if ever. Ok, I know Im boring you now.
Point is, to say that there was fine-tuning needed makes no sense. To say there was anything like accuracy involved makes no sense. (BTW, to say in your opinion, well I can let that go for now.) Saying these things would be equivalent to saying we the universe couldn't have undergone this change this fast because our description of it was not accurate. The changes we see in the earliest moments of the universe have nothing to do with the laws of physics changing. The laws of physics changing did not in any way affect the behavior of the universe. The laws of physics changed, means nothing more than that our current models do not accurately describe the behavior of the universe for those brief moments. How could they? You and I both know there is a tiny bit of difference between no space or time, and the universe. (We can not prosecute the universe and send it to jail for our failure to accurately describe its birth.:cover These same laws break down near black holes. All this means is that we are not currently able to describe and predict the behavior of the universe near a black hole.
Do you submit regarding your argument from the change in the laws of physics needing accuracy and fine-tuning prove god?