The Crimson Universe
Active Member
Experts on Advaita believe that the experience or realization of the oneness in samadhi, cannot be described later on by the sadhaka after he comes out of samadhi.
To the experts, the reason for this is that, the mind ceases to function in samadhi. It becomes mute. It becomes devoid of all thoughts.
They say, the distinction of the subject and object vanishes during this experience.
Their point is, if there remains no seeker/subject in samadhi, then who will describe the experience of oneness?
To explain this, we are often given the salt doll analogy of Ramakrishna-
Tales and Parables Ramakrishna - A SALT DOLL WENT TO FATHOM THE OCEAN – GreatMaster.Info
My question is, if the mind really becomes mute and the subject(yogi) dissolves with the so-called object(brahman) and therefore fails to register his divine samadhi experience of oneness, then why do they use the term 'Realization'?
I mean, if the sadhaka can actually 'REALIZE' during samadhi, then he SHOULD be able to describe his wonderful experience later on as well. And yet we don't find anyone describing it.
To the experts, the reason for this is that, the mind ceases to function in samadhi. It becomes mute. It becomes devoid of all thoughts.
They say, the distinction of the subject and object vanishes during this experience.
Their point is, if there remains no seeker/subject in samadhi, then who will describe the experience of oneness?
To explain this, we are often given the salt doll analogy of Ramakrishna-
Tales and Parables Ramakrishna - A SALT DOLL WENT TO FATHOM THE OCEAN – GreatMaster.Info
My question is, if the mind really becomes mute and the subject(yogi) dissolves with the so-called object(brahman) and therefore fails to register his divine samadhi experience of oneness, then why do they use the term 'Realization'?
I mean, if the sadhaka can actually 'REALIZE' during samadhi, then he SHOULD be able to describe his wonderful experience later on as well. And yet we don't find anyone describing it.