YmirGF
Bodhisattva in Recovery
Ding!"Sharia-style arbitration" is not Sharia though is it.
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Ding!"Sharia-style arbitration" is not Sharia though is it.
And this relates to my point how? Why is there any need, whatsoever, for "Sharia" flavored arbitration, when we already have perfectly reasonable arbitration methods available?I'm not sure that this is a fair question. I don't think I know anyone, Muslim or not, who think that a full trial is the best way to solve every legal dispute.
Hence my question if it should be allowed. 9-10ths, I fully realize that secular law allows for other forms of arbitration, but since Islam is not compatible with Secular society, as per Not4me's wonderfully instructive thread, the question is, "Why would any secular society (in it's right mind) allow for the practice of Sharia (in any form) within its jurisdictions?" My guess is that it is currently offered in some countries due to politically correct ignorance.Edit: and you've also set up a false dichotomy: in many cases, it's secular law itself that allows Sharia-style arbitration (as part of a range of allowed types of arbitration).
Distinction without difference. Generally, the "perfectly reasonable arbitration methods available" are the ones that allow a wide latitude in terms of arbitration style, and as such include Sharia-based arbitration.And this relates to my point how? Why is there any need, whatsoever, for "Sharia" flavored arbitration, when we already have perfectly reasonable arbitration methods available?
Does not4me (or rather you speaking for not4me) get to speak for all of Islam? Some things that people call "Muslim" or "Sharia" are compatible with the laws of secular democracies; other things are not. In a secular democracy, I have no problem with allowing people to engage in things that are compatible with the laws of a secular democracy.Hence my question if it should be allowed. 9-10ths, I fully realize that secular law allows for other forms of arbitration, but since Islam is not compatible with Secular society, as per Not4me's wonderfully instructive thread, the question is, "Why would any secular society (in it's right mind) allow for the practice of Sharia (in any form) within its jurisdictions?" My guess is that it is currently offered in some countries due to politically correct ignorance.
That begs the question though, Badran. Why would Muslims not feel secular law was perfectly suitable for their needs? Why should discriminatory laws be enacted to please a minority? I'm inclined to vote for making Sharia law (in any form) illegal in secular countries. In other words, the citizens of given countries MUST accept the laws of the land and simply make do and there should be no special considerations granted to one group in areas that are already covered by adequate law codes.
i ask again what is this "Sharia" that we are voting for or against does anyone know? is it any set of rules or guidelines that a group of Muslims come along and request ? what if another group comes along and says "thats not Sharia this is" do we have sharia courts or commitees for Bangladeshis and another for Somalis? yet another for Pakistanis? because lets face it we cant have the real thing because that only comes with a Caliph.
Not law Kai, not like binding laws, and not like laws that are established in an Islamic state. Merely something like i explained.
Then thats not Sharia is it
Also, sharia does not only come with a caliph. Sharia is fully applicable within an Islamic state, which doesn't have to be a caliphate at all.
But there isnt one to use as an example is there because whether its Saudi or Iran version of sharia its not true Sharia. Sharia is a reflection of God's will for humankind. Sharia must therefore be, in its purest sense, perfect and unchanging.
If your point is, that an appliance of sharia law with everything in it, is unacceptable, then i agree.
However, it doesn't matter what we call it, what is proposed here is to apply the pretty simple basics in the light i explained.
If the proposal is to apply sharia fully, then i disagree with that because thats ridicules in more than one way. But i don't think thats the proposal.
Then its not up to anyone and everyone to call their desired court or Comittee "Sharia" just to give it some credibility.
It will be rules derived from sharia, but that doesn't mean it is a full appliance, nor that it is a law.
To be honest though i'm not sure whats your point or concern here. Is it the vagueness of the proposal?
*MOD POST: Thread moved into the general debates from the Islam DIR*
Given the comments of some Muslims on RF, that Islam is not compatible with Secularism, should secular societies allow Sharia law to be enacted within secular societies?
Link to Not4me's thread: Secularism vs Islam
After making your selection in the poll, please comment on your vote, if you feel so inclined.
If yes, why so?
If not, why not?
If you are unsure, why are you unsure?
DO share your thoughts.
And that, is precisely my point.In a secular society, you have one set of rules for everyone.
But when it comes to ADR/arbitration, the rule we're talking about is basically "as long as everyone agrees, do what you want within a few basic limits". This allows for Sharia-based arbitration. To get rid of Muslims' ability to do this, you would have to either severely limit ADR, or you would have to have a special rule that prohibits Muslims from engaging in something that everyone else is allowed to do. One option would hamstring a useful and beneficial alternative to trials, and the other would be exactly the thing you claim to be against.And that, is precisely my point.
Yes it is
I am not in favor of any religiously based arbitration, period.But when it comes to ADR/arbitration, the rule we're talking about is basically "as long as everyone agrees, do what you want within a few basic limits". This allows for Sharia-based arbitration. To get rid of Muslims' ability to do this, you would have to either severely limit ADR, or you would have to have a special rule that prohibits Muslims from engaging in something that everyone else is allowed to do. One option would hamstring a useful and beneficial alternative to trials, and the other would be exactly the thing you claim to be against.
How would you propose we get to that end result? Would you prohibit all arbitration, or would you create a situation where different types of arbitration are treated differently under the law depending on their religious basis (or lack thereof)?I am not in favor of any religiously based arbitration, period.
*MOD POST: Thread moved into the general debates from the Islam DIR*
Given the comments of some Muslims on RF, that Islam is not compatible with Secularism, should secular societies allow Sharia law to be enacted within secular societies?
Link to Not4me's thread: Secularism vs Islam
After making your selection in the poll, please comment on your vote, if you feel so inclined.
If yes, why so?
If not, why not?
If you are unsure, why are you unsure?
DO share your thoughts.
At the risk of completely derailing this thread, what is so different about Sharia Law than theocracy (by any religion)?