I have a question about that.
Let's say that you have religious texts A, B, C, and D. A, B, and C all agree on X, B, C, and D all agree on Y, but A posits !Y (not Y) and D posits !X (not X). According to your process, which conclusion is accurate: X&Y, !X&!Y, !X&Y, or X&!Y, and how do you know?
If we can only affirm the truth of what the texts agree on, and therefore we can't affirm either X or !X or either Y or !Y, then the texts haven't really given us any information at all, have they?
I suspect that the common solution is to try to find some third position, Z, which can be "described as" or "appear to be" either X or !X "depending on how one looks at it." However, wouldn't that technically contradict the texts, and therefore since Z doesn't have any similarities with the texts at all we have to dismiss it?
If not, and I would be interested in why you would say that's not the case, then what if there's also some explanation W that can also be "described as" or "appear to be" what all of the texts describe "depending on how one looks at it?" How do you know whether Z or W is more accurate, if they both fit the readings of the texts?
I actually do believe that there are a lot of similarities between religious texts, and I think those similarities are best explained by a naturalistic worldview. But I could have an argument with other perennialists, such as Hermeticists or Theosophists or ancient astronaut theorists or animists, about why such similarities exist and they would disagree with my explanation.
If similarities alone are enough to make the right connections, do you think we could remedy this conundrum based solely on intertextual analysis? Or do you think the recognition of similarity is merely the beginning of understanding, and more investigation or practice is necessary to find the additional pieces?