Now, I've just been reading more of the notes in the JPS Tanakh, and under Isaiah 42:1-9 there is an interesting note that demonstrates the confusion and differences regarding 'My servant, Israel in whom I glory.' [Isaiah 49:3]
The note under chapter 42 says, 'God's Servant. The identification of the servant in these vv. is hotly debated. Possibilities include Cyrus (according to Saadia Gaon), the prophet himself (so Ibn Ezra), the Messiah (so Targum and Radak), and the Israelite nation as a whole (so Septuagint and Rashi). See 52:13-53:12n. The term 'servant' in most other passages in chapters 40-66 clearly refers to the nation Israel, or to the faithful within Israel, and that is the most likely explanation here as well. This passage borrows vocabulary and ideas from both ch 11 and Jer. 31:31-36. Like those passages, this text looks forward to the ideal world of the future, in which justice will reign and the covenant between Israel and God will be observed perfectly. The servant in this passage is parallel to, though not identical with, the ideal David king described in chapter 11; promises made to the king there are transferred to the whole nation here. Cf. 55:3n.; 60:1-22n.; 65:25n.'
Consistency is important in exegesis, and whilst I can understand why many of the passages that refer to Israel have been assumed to refer to the nation, or the faithful within Israel, this seems to me to overlook one other important possibility, which is that some references may refer to BOTH the individual and the nation. To suggest that there is no individual 'Israel' is the same as denying that there is no servant David, which is clearly not the case [Isaiah 11:1; Ezekiel 34:23,24] The Messiah is Israel, and his faithful are Israel. They are one flock with one shepherd. There is one head, with one body.
This is, of course, exactly what the Messiah of the New Testament represents. The rendering of Isaiah 49:7,8 in the KJV reads very differently from the JPS. It says, 'Thus saith the LORD, the Redeemer of Israel, and his Holy One, to him whom man despiseth, to him whom the nation abhorreth, to a servant of rulers, Kings shall see and arise, princes also shall worship, because of the LORD that is faithful, and the Holy One of Israel, and he shall choose thee.
Thus saith the LORD, In an acceptable time [See Isaiah 61:2] have I heard thee, and in a day of salvation have I helped thee: and I will preserve thee and give thee for a covenant of the people, to establish the earth, to cause to inherit the desolate heritages;'
The expression I have underlined is explained in the JPS as 'covenants of a people'; meaning of Heb. uncertain. See 49:6 and note.
Isaiah 49:6 reads; [JPS]'For He has said:
'It is too little that you should be My servant
In that I raise up the tribes of Jacob
And restore the survivors of Israel:
I will also make you a light of nations,
That my salvation may reach the ends of the earth.'
Who, then, is a 'light of nations' or 'the light of the Gentiles'? Isaiah mentions this light as being the individual Israel (Messiah) in Isaiah 11:10. Yet it might be less clear in Isaiah 42:1; 42:6; 49:6; 54:3; 60:3; 62:2; 66:19.
Why, therefore, is it not most advisable to accept that Israel could be BOTH the individual and the faithful people (Jew and Gentile)?
P.S. I've not seen Tumah's comments for a long time. Do you know anything about his whereabouts?
