BilliardsBall
Veteran Member
[/QUOTE]Can you show me this in the Hebrew? I don't recall the word "messiah" in chapter 53. You wouldn't happen to be citing not-Tanach concepts, would you? In fact, the m-sh-ch root appears, (AFAICT) 2 times in the book of Isaiah, once as a reference to Koresh and once to Isaiah himself.
Ignoring your mathematical hyperbole, the Tanach says that the entire corpus of Christian belief and text is junk.
So, no, it doesn't say it -- a translation inserts it there. Why not quote the Hebrew?
Ah, the Hebrew doesn't support your erroneous claims. Now I get it,
It actually seems like introducing your English fiction is therefore the only way for you to claim the fulfillment of anything at all.
That's all uber crazy. You start with the mistake about Daniel and his role, then about the idea of atonement by death (and I will let others discuss the year 30 as compared to other claimed years), and then you cite the bizarre and arbitrary Ezekiel foolishness (ignoring the plethora of scholarship which contests the historical accuracy of years claimed, Newton's historical claims about years, and the issue of the discrepancy between 2 sets of computations regarding the overall structure of history) which relies on the fiction of 360 days in order to come up with a "prediction" which holds no water.
Good job. That's a lot of silliness in one post!
Thank you for helping me adhere all the more closely to Messiah.
In the Hebrew are hundreds of specific prophecies to help us identify the Messiah.
It is not mathematical hyperbole to say:
1) Tanakh says thousands of times some variant of "THIS is God's Word!"
2) Talmud, Zohar, etc. say this ZERO times.
I'm still waiting for you to answer simple questions, such as "Why are some Jews dying near wealthy people a prophecy?"