So Is The Bible The Be All and The End all?

[Kilgore Trout]

If the bible isn't an accurate representation of god's word, then the whole basis of the religion crumbles to meaninglessness.

 

[Shiranui117]

Are there any Christian members of this forum prepared state that the Bible is the word of God put into writing by various scribes, be they Essenes and other? And that all Christians interpret god's word correctly and truthfully?

No and no.

 

[rusra02]

Are there any Christian members of this forum prepared state that the Bible is the word of God put into writing by various scribes, be they Essenes and other? And that all Christians interpret god's word correctly and truthfully?

Yes, the Bible is God's inspired Word. "All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work." (2 Timothy 3:16,17) I believe there is no need nor authorization for human tradition to augment God's word, since the Bible makes those who follow it "fully competent, completely equipped."
Relatively few professed Christians follow and correctly teach the Bible, resulting in thousands of sects all teaching different doctrines. So, no, all "Christians" do not interpret God's Word correctly and truthfully.

 

[Adamski]

Are there any Christian members of this forum prepared state that the Bible is the word of God put into writing by various scribes, be they Essenes and other? And that all Christians interpret god's word correctly and truthfully?

The only correct way to interpret the bible is through the eyes of the church that wrote it and decided what books belong it the Roman Catholic Church

 

[S.T.Ranger]

Are there any Christian members of this forum prepared state that the Bible is the word of God put into writing by various scribes, be they Essenes and other? And that all Christians interpret god's word correctly and truthfully?

Based on the fact there are so many interpretations of Scripture we know that not all Christians interpret it correctly, though they may be (and probably are) sincere in their belief that their interpretation is the correct one. But usually an examination of the Biblical Basis for all Doctrine and Practice can determine whether an interpretation is correct.

And I am more than willing to go on record as saying only the Bible can be viewed as the Sole Authority by which to judge Christian Doctrine and Practice. While certain groups feel Oral Tradition is as authoritative as Scripture, usually, again, when we compare those traditions with actual Biblical Doctrine, we usually find discrepancies which invalidate most traditions of men.

So what is the point of your thread?


God bless.

 

[metis]

From this non-Christian:

The Bible has only been around for 2000-3000 years, depending on how one defines it, plus it was only available for a relatively small population in one small area of the world for much of that time period. Therefore, it begs the question why God (or is it Gods) would not make Himself known in some fashion for the millions of years before the Bible, plus the millions or even billions of people who lived in different locations?

 

[S.T.Ranger]

From this non-Christian:

The Bible has only been around for 2000-3000 years, depending on how one defines it, plus it was only available for a relatively small population in one small area of the world for much of that time period. Therefore, it begs the question why God (or is it Gods) would not make Himself known in some fashion for the millions of years before the Bible, plus the millions or even billions of people who lived in different locations?

The Bible is but one form of revelation process God uses.

Consider:


Romans 1:18-21
King James Version (KJV)

18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;

19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.

20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:

21 Because that, when they knew God, they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful; but became vain in their imaginations, and their foolish heart was darkened.


First, God spoke directly to man in the Garden, and after that what was known of God was passed down (it is the responsibility of the parent to convey the knowledge of God to their children). Here we see that from the beginning men had a knowledge of God and are without excuse, Creation itself bearing witness to God's existence.

Here...


Romans 2:10-16
King James Version (KJV)

10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

11 For there is no respect of persons with God.

12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;

13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.

14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:

15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another)

16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.


In view are those who did not have the "Bible," the Hebrew Scriptures.

They too are without excuse, because we see that God writes the Law on the hearts of men, which is why we can find remote tribes who keep the Law of God without ever hearing about Moses.

So no man has an excuse to do evil, or, to deny God's existence. Those who have not been exposed to direct revelation such as God speaking directly to men, speaking to men through men, or speaking to men through His Word...still have a mandate to follow that Law.

Now we see those who have been given the Bible:


Romans 3
King James Version (KJV)

1 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?

2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.


The principle Paul is presenting is that those who have received the Word of God will be judged according to their response to the Word of God, and they are held more accountable because receiving the Word goes a step above general revelation all men have received.

The context we have just looked at contrasts Jews (Israel) with Gentiles, and the point is "Just because one is a Jew and has the Word of God does not mean they will be justified when judged, and, just because one is a Gentile and does not have the Word of God doesn't mean they won't be justified when judged. All will be judged according to their response to the revelation they have received."

That is a basic principle which is seen throughout Scripture, beginning in Genesis and going all the way through to Revelation.

So while you might think your argument is sound, based on biblical principles it isn't. All men have received revelation from GOd of His existence, and all men will be judged according to their response of that revelation.


God bless.

 

[DavidFirth]

From this non-Christian:

The Bible has only been around for 2000-3000 years, depending on how one defines it, plus it was only available for a relatively small population in one small area of the world for much of that time period. Therefore, it begs the question why God (or is it Gods) would not make Himself known in some fashion for the millions of years before the Bible, plus the millions or even billions of people who lived in different locations?

What millions or billions of years? Rather the question that is begged is whether or not this much time has passed or have we been deceived?

 

[metis]

So while you might think your argument is sound, based on biblical principles it isn't.

I'm not a Christian, and my most basic orientation can be seen at my signature statement at the bottom of this post.

 

[metis]

What millions or billions of years? Rather the question that is begged is whether or not this much time has passed or have we been deceived?

As an anthropologist, I think you can pretty much guess what my position is.

 

[DavidFirth]

As an anthropologist, I think you can pretty much guess what my position is.

Theoretically. Of course.

 

[metis]

Theoretically. Of course.

Not really, especially since we do know how radioactivity works, which is heavily used in dating items going back millions of years. The general pattern of human evolution is quite clear going back 3 million years ago, and the picture going back even further is gradually unfolding.

Anyhow, ...

 

[DavidFirth]

Not really, especially since we think we do know how radioactivity works, which is heavily used in dating items going back millions of years. We think The general pattern of human evolution is quite clear going back 3 million years ago, and the picture going back even further is gradually unfolding.

Anyhow, ...

FIFY

 

[metis]

Not really, especially since we do know how radioactivity works, which is heavily used in dating items going back millions of years. The general pattern of human evolution is quite clear going back 3 million years ago, and the picture going back even further is gradually unfolding.

FIFY

This is how we in science tend to talk, namely by not saying "X" is some sort of "absolute fact" but, instead, that "we think" or "the evidence suggests". IOW, we don't talk like theists.

 

[DavidFirth]

This is how we in science tend to talk, namely by not saying "X" is some sort of "absolute fact" but, instead, that "we think" or "the evidence suggests". IOW, we don't talk like theists.

Well, at least you admit that you don't know.

 

[metis]

Well, at least you admit that you don't know.

Thanks.

As Confucius supposedly said "The more you know, the more you know that you really don't know much" [paraphrased]. To a child, a tree is simple; to a botanist, a tree is quite complex.

But let me just end this since it's a "side-bar", by saying that evolution is just plain old common sense based on everyday observations, namely that all material things appear to change over time, and genes are material things. Therefore, one doesn't even have to know how to spell "science" in order to understand we have a complex and long past-- much like the trees.

 

[Skwim]

The Bible is but one form of revelation process God uses.

First, God spoke directly to man in the Garden, and after that what was known of God was passed down (it is the responsibility of the parent to convey the knowledge of God to their children). Here we see that from the beginning men had a knowledge of God and are without excuse, Creation itself bearing witness to God's existence.

Why should I believe this is true?

In view are those who did not have the "Bible," the Hebrew Scriptures.

They too are without excuse, because we see that God writes the Law on the hearts of men, which is why we can find remote tribes who keep the Law of God without ever hearing about Moses.

So no man has an excuse to do evil, or, to deny God's existence. Those who have not been exposed to direct revelation such as God speaking directly to men, speaking to men through men, or speaking to men through His Word...still have a mandate to follow that Law.

Now we see those who have been given the Bible:

Why should I believe this is true?

The principle Paul is presenting is that those who have received the Word of God will be judged according to their response to the Word of God, and they are held more accountable because receiving the Word goes a step above general revelation all men have received.

Why should I believe this is true?

The context we have just looked at contrasts Jews (Israel) with Gentiles, and the point is "Just because one is a Jew and has the Word of God does not mean they will be justified when judged, and, just because one is a Gentile and does not have the Word of God doesn't mean they won't be justified when judged. All will be judged according to their response to the revelation they have received."

Why should I believe this is true?

So while you might think your argument is sound, based on biblical principles it isn't. All men have received revelation from GOd of His existence, and all men will be judged according to their response of that revelation.

Why should I believe this is true?

.