You failed to understand the nature of the evidence presented and what defines evidence.
An eyewitness account is an example of evidence.
The book is written by someone offering personal testimony of the lion they owned an it's behavior.
Therefore, it is false to claim no evidence is offered.
You may not like the evidence. You might not want to accept the evidence. You might not personally be convinced by the evidence - but none of that means that no evidence has been presented.
The other poster committed the genetic fallacy by trying to argue against the evidence by attacking it's source as being Christian.
He did not offer valid arguments against the evidence's sufficiency, validity, or accuracy.
Doing that would require actually looking at the book and trying to find reason to believe their story is a fabrication before you could claim the source is not reliable.
If you aren't able or willing to do that then you don't get to logically claim the source is not reliable because you have no evidence that would lead us to believe it is not reliable.
Now, he did not simply express a personal lack of being convinced on the basis of not having read the book yet to judge it for himself. If that was all he did there wouldn't be an issue here.
Instead he tried to make a positive claim, a factual claim, that the book was not reliable. A claim he made without evidence or valid logical basis.
It was a fallacy claim based on the genetic fallacy.
As I just pointed out, his only basis for calling the eyewitness testimony (the book) evidence unreliable was to call its source "extreme Christian".
A genetic fallacy.
Your statement is not relevant because you are operating from the false belief that no evidence was presented.
As I pointed out above, eyewitness testimony in the form of a published book constitutes evidence by definition.
It doesn't have to meet your personal standard of being "good enough" evidence to convince you in order to qualify as being evidence in the logical sense.
Your statement about how logical debate works is true but also irrelevant because it doesn't refute anything I argued. You have a misunderstanding of what happened, as I pointed out above.
The eyewitness testimony in the book meets the burden of proof for the claim in the sense that it provides reasons and evidences to justify the claim.
The burden of rejoinder is then on the person who wants to dispute the validity or truth of that evidence to offer valid counter arguments against it
@Subduction Zone did not offer a valid counter argument against the evidence.
He claimed it was unreliable without offering any valid reasons or evidence for why it should not be regarded as reliable.
He only offered the genetic fallacy of calling the source "extreme christian".
You demonstrate you don't know what the defining features of an ad hominem fallacy are.
If you logically demonstrate why someone's argument is false, and don't even offer any comments of ridicule with that, that that obvious isn't an appeal to ridicule - and I don't see why you would be so confused as to think it is.
But the mere presence of ridicule is not the defining feature of a fallacy of ridicule.
If you call someone's argument ridiculous and then go on to give valid logical reasons and evidence for why you think it qualifies as ridiculous, then you aren't committing the fallacy of appeal to ridicule by definition.
The appeal to ridicule fallacy is when you ignore the argument someone made and just offer ridicule as your only response.
If you offer valid rebuttals to someone's argument and refute it, and then go on to also call them names, you wouldn't technically be guilty of an ad hominem because you aren't using name calling to avoid dealing with the arguments in question.
If, however, you don't even attempt to meet your burden of rejoinder to offer valid counter arguments to someone's arguments, but then simply respond by calling them names, then you are guilty of a textbook ad hominem fallacy.
Given that subduction zone did not in most cases attempt at all to offer any type of counter arguments to my arguments, and the few he did were shown to be fallacious and went uncorrected by him, for him to them go on to refer to my arguments as "babbling" represents a textbook fallacy of a type of ad hominem. He is trying to call the argument names in order to dismiss it without either offering a valid counter argument or even substantiating with reason or evidence why his namecalling should even be regarded as accurate.
For him to not be committing a type of ad hominem fallacy here he would need to provide valid logical reasons and evidence to not only establish his claim is true that anything I have posted supposedly qualified as "babbling", but he would also need to furnish valid counter arguments to all the arguments I made against his claims so that he is not guilty of using his personal attack as a type of red herring or avoiding the issue fallacy.
Because even a personal attack, if proven to be a true attack, would still be a fallacy of red herring because it's not relevant to refuting the arguments you are responding to.