Good. The word "sold". Depending on the english translation, there's also the word "slave". That's 2 words.
@blü 2 brought the RSV, I don't love it, but I agreed to use it.
I'll color code the words that indicate ownership in red, and the words which moderate that in blue.
7 When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do.
8 If she does not please her master, who has designated her for himself, then he shall let her be redeemed; he shall have no right to sell her to a foreign people, since he has dealt faithlessly with her.
So that's 2 to 5, owned as property compared to not owned as property. Not owned as property clearly wins. What's happening is a transfer of custody where betrothal is required and she is consenting to the agreement. That's my position. I can show it, but it takes several steps, including looking at the hebrew word being translated as "slave".
A person doesn't need to know Hebrew to recognize that the word in the first part of verse 7 is not the same word as at the end of verse 7. Though so many translations ignore that and mistranslate it.
וְכִֽי־יִמְכֹּר אִישׁ אֶת־בִּתּוֹ לְאָמָה לֹא תֵצֵא כְּצֵאת הָֽעֲבָדִֽים׃
7 When a man sells his daughter as a אָמָה, she shall not go out as the male עֲבָדִֽ do.
So, there are reasons, good reasons, that these verses in Exodus are not talking about property ownership. This doesn't excuse the other issues people criticise about the Bible. But this one issue is misunderstood.
Good. Me neither. So what ever is happening here is not an owner / slave relationship.