reddogs
Active Member
Here is a explanation by my friend palehorse...
"Now, to begin with, I think we can both agree that Matthew 10:28 does not define what a soul is; and I believe that is the question at hand. Or maybe I should ask plainly, what is the question exactly? Exacting answers come from exacting questions.
While I agree that the NT's usage of soul/psuche (Strong's #5590) is an expanded one that covers various symbolic meanings, however none of the NT references that I'm aware of define what a soul is. That definition is found in the OT.
Now some points on this verse in question:
1) By one saying that this verse possibly indicates that the soul is a seperate, dualistic part of a human, than the verse itself states clearly that the soul is NOT immortal; "destroy both soul and body in hell". That alone tells me that the soul, however we decide to define it, CAN be destroyed - thus it is not immortal.
2) When we look at the various definitions for psuche in the lexicon we find a miriad of possible definitions. How do you decide which one of these definitions fits?
3) When one reads the entire Matthew 10 (particularly starting at 10:16 onward) account we find that Christ is talking to the apostles in regards to their persecution as they are being sent out to spread the Gospel. He tells them how hard it is going to be (such as in 10:9 how they would be poor (no gold, nor silver, nor brass)). He tells them not to fear those that are going to persecute them, that they would be brought before governers and kings (verse 18) by those that would have them persecuted. Basically, what we find is Jesus warning them but at the same time giving them strength to do His work - that is the theme - not fearing men. He is telling them to stay strong, for though men may be able to kill them ONLY God can determine ones salvation.
4) I think the crux of your point is going to be "why is body and soul mentioned seperately if they are one and the same as your essay states"? That is a very simple answer; as I stated at the beginning of this reply, the NT expands the means of words used in the OT. Soul in the NT, as we've seen from the Strong's Lexicon #5590, has various meanings. But you'll notice that virtually every definition (in particularly definition #2) shows traits that are associated with the whole being of a person (their feelings, desires, affections, etc). These are parts of the whole person, not some seperate "essense" as the very last definition (2c) would try to squeeze in. As such, the verse simply means [paraphrase] "do not be afraid of those that can kill you, if you are going to be afraid of anyone be afraid of God, for it is He that can destroy you utterly as it is He that decides your salvation".
Does this make sense for I might not have been very clear? But I think once we look at the entire body of texts the overwhelming conclusion of what a soul is easily found. According to rule #7 we must harmonize less-clear verses with those that are more clear. As such, Gen 2:7 is the clearer verse and it tells us exactly what a soul is.... Bible tells us what a soul is (which we saw in Gen 2:7) and that only God has immortality at this point (1 Timothy 1:17 & 1 Timothy 6:15-16). Let's see those verses quickly:
1 Timothy 6:15-16 - Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; 16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
1 Timothy 1:17 - Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.
To arrive at the conclusion that souls are somehow immortal would take a lot of scriptural proof, and as far as I know, such scriptures simply do not exist.
(A) verse that tells what a soul is [Gen 2:7], that only God has immortality [specifically 1 Tim 6:16], that man can in fact destroy a human soul (for that is what David was talking about)[Psalms 40:14 specifically]; in light of this it would seem the clearest interpretation that can be derived is that the Bible teaches body/soul/spirit wholism verses body/soul dualism.
If I may add a verse to further support my the Gen 2:7 verse (for we should never rely on just one verse for any biblical truth) that man is a soul instead of man having a soul;
1 Corinthians 15:45 - And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
This verse supports Gen 2:7 for 1) it is talking about the same event, the creation of man, and 2) it reaffirms that man was made a living soul - not man was given a living soul.
John 11:25 & 26 - Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: 26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die.
I can certainly see where this verse, especially due to the use of the word never, does make it seem that the soul/spirit/something doesn't die. So let's look at this.
Reading through the verse I see some keys; 1) we see Christ saying He is the resurrection (which we all firmly believe) and 2) He talks of those that were dead. Now since we know that Christ is the resurrection (i.e. - He has the power to resurrect us) and He will resurrect those that died who believed in Him. But then Christ says "And"! Of course "and" means "in addition to". Christ is talking about two groups of believers; in verse 25 He is addressing those that died (the ones He'll raise from the grave), in verse 26 He is addressing those that will be alive when He returns - for they will put on immortality [1 Corinthians 15:53 & 54] and never die.
I must admit, it took me reading that verse about 7 times before it struck me that there are two different groups being addressed by Christ - and recognizing that now puts this verse in perfect harmony with all the other verses contained in my essay.
"Now, to begin with, I think we can both agree that Matthew 10:28 does not define what a soul is; and I believe that is the question at hand. Or maybe I should ask plainly, what is the question exactly? Exacting answers come from exacting questions.
While I agree that the NT's usage of soul/psuche (Strong's #5590) is an expanded one that covers various symbolic meanings, however none of the NT references that I'm aware of define what a soul is. That definition is found in the OT.
Now some points on this verse in question:
1) By one saying that this verse possibly indicates that the soul is a seperate, dualistic part of a human, than the verse itself states clearly that the soul is NOT immortal; "destroy both soul and body in hell". That alone tells me that the soul, however we decide to define it, CAN be destroyed - thus it is not immortal.
2) When we look at the various definitions for psuche in the lexicon we find a miriad of possible definitions. How do you decide which one of these definitions fits?
3) When one reads the entire Matthew 10 (particularly starting at 10:16 onward) account we find that Christ is talking to the apostles in regards to their persecution as they are being sent out to spread the Gospel. He tells them how hard it is going to be (such as in 10:9 how they would be poor (no gold, nor silver, nor brass)). He tells them not to fear those that are going to persecute them, that they would be brought before governers and kings (verse 18) by those that would have them persecuted. Basically, what we find is Jesus warning them but at the same time giving them strength to do His work - that is the theme - not fearing men. He is telling them to stay strong, for though men may be able to kill them ONLY God can determine ones salvation.
4) I think the crux of your point is going to be "why is body and soul mentioned seperately if they are one and the same as your essay states"? That is a very simple answer; as I stated at the beginning of this reply, the NT expands the means of words used in the OT. Soul in the NT, as we've seen from the Strong's Lexicon #5590, has various meanings. But you'll notice that virtually every definition (in particularly definition #2) shows traits that are associated with the whole being of a person (their feelings, desires, affections, etc). These are parts of the whole person, not some seperate "essense" as the very last definition (2c) would try to squeeze in. As such, the verse simply means [paraphrase] "do not be afraid of those that can kill you, if you are going to be afraid of anyone be afraid of God, for it is He that can destroy you utterly as it is He that decides your salvation".
Does this make sense for I might not have been very clear? But I think once we look at the entire body of texts the overwhelming conclusion of what a soul is easily found. According to rule #7 we must harmonize less-clear verses with those that are more clear. As such, Gen 2:7 is the clearer verse and it tells us exactly what a soul is.... Bible tells us what a soul is (which we saw in Gen 2:7) and that only God has immortality at this point (1 Timothy 1:17 & 1 Timothy 6:15-16). Let's see those verses quickly:
1 Timothy 6:15-16 - Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; 16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
1 Timothy 1:17 - Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever. Amen.
To arrive at the conclusion that souls are somehow immortal would take a lot of scriptural proof, and as far as I know, such scriptures simply do not exist.
(A) verse that tells what a soul is [Gen 2:7], that only God has immortality [specifically 1 Tim 6:16], that man can in fact destroy a human soul (for that is what David was talking about)[Psalms 40:14 specifically]; in light of this it would seem the clearest interpretation that can be derived is that the Bible teaches body/soul/spirit wholism verses body/soul dualism.
If I may add a verse to further support my the Gen 2:7 verse (for we should never rely on just one verse for any biblical truth) that man is a soul instead of man having a soul;
1 Corinthians 15:45 - And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
This verse supports Gen 2:7 for 1) it is talking about the same event, the creation of man, and 2) it reaffirms that man was made a living soul - not man was given a living soul.
John 11:25 & 26 - Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live: 26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die.
I can certainly see where this verse, especially due to the use of the word never, does make it seem that the soul/spirit/something doesn't die. So let's look at this.
Reading through the verse I see some keys; 1) we see Christ saying He is the resurrection (which we all firmly believe) and 2) He talks of those that were dead. Now since we know that Christ is the resurrection (i.e. - He has the power to resurrect us) and He will resurrect those that died who believed in Him. But then Christ says "And"! Of course "and" means "in addition to". Christ is talking about two groups of believers; in verse 25 He is addressing those that died (the ones He'll raise from the grave), in verse 26 He is addressing those that will be alive when He returns - for they will put on immortality [1 Corinthians 15:53 & 54] and never die.
I must admit, it took me reading that verse about 7 times before it struck me that there are two different groups being addressed by Christ - and recognizing that now puts this verse in perfect harmony with all the other verses contained in my essay.