an anarchist
Your local loco.
Matthew 2 gives an account of three men visiting baby Jesus. Depending what version of the Bible you’re using, who the men are differs. The KJV says this
1 Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem,
2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews? for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.
The NIV says this
1 After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod, Magi from the east came to Jerusalem2 and asked, “Where is the one who has been born king of the Jews? We saw his star when it rose and have come to worship him.”
due to the KJV, it’s been put in popular imagination that these “wise men” were kings, fulfilling the prophecy of Isaiah 60:3 . They were not kings. They were Magi.
What are Magi? They were the priests of Zoroastrianism, and they were the astrologers/astronomer of their times.
The star that they seen. That has been depicted as a spotlight shining on baby Jesus in popular imagination. Does this make sense? Wouldn’t every one be able to see it? Doesn’t it make more sense that these Magi were referring to astrological signs? They were astrologers, right?
So why does any of this matter? I think there are big implications that the presence of the Magi bring. Zoroastrianism has an awaited Messiah figure. Doesn’t this Bible passage assume to claim that Jesus was the awaited Messiah of Zoroastrianism as well?
I interpret this as Christians should look into Zoroastrianism and see what it has to say. I often talk about my opinions on the end times on this site, Zoroastrianism has shaped my views on it. The rapture cannot happen unless we make it happen through collective morality, this is the resulting syncretic view of Zoroastrianism and Christianity (IMO). the presence of the Magi has implications, do you disagree?
Also, shame on the KJV for changing the word Magi to wise men. My assumption is that the translators knew the implication, and sought to erase any hint of syncretism in their version of the Bible.
1 Now when Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Herod the king, behold, there came wise men from the east to Jerusalem,
2 Saying, Where is he that is born King of the Jews? for we have seen his star in the east, and are come to worship him.
The NIV says this
1 After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod, Magi from the east came to Jerusalem2 and asked, “Where is the one who has been born king of the Jews? We saw his star when it rose and have come to worship him.”
due to the KJV, it’s been put in popular imagination that these “wise men” were kings, fulfilling the prophecy of Isaiah 60:3 . They were not kings. They were Magi.
What are Magi? They were the priests of Zoroastrianism, and they were the astrologers/astronomer of their times.
The star that they seen. That has been depicted as a spotlight shining on baby Jesus in popular imagination. Does this make sense? Wouldn’t every one be able to see it? Doesn’t it make more sense that these Magi were referring to astrological signs? They were astrologers, right?
So why does any of this matter? I think there are big implications that the presence of the Magi bring. Zoroastrianism has an awaited Messiah figure. Doesn’t this Bible passage assume to claim that Jesus was the awaited Messiah of Zoroastrianism as well?
I interpret this as Christians should look into Zoroastrianism and see what it has to say. I often talk about my opinions on the end times on this site, Zoroastrianism has shaped my views on it. The rapture cannot happen unless we make it happen through collective morality, this is the resulting syncretic view of Zoroastrianism and Christianity (IMO). the presence of the Magi has implications, do you disagree?
Also, shame on the KJV for changing the word Magi to wise men. My assumption is that the translators knew the implication, and sought to erase any hint of syncretism in their version of the Bible.