FerventGodSeeker said:
Not an expert here, but I believe the fact that individual churches established different canons does not invalidate the authority of the Carthage Council to establish the Canon for the whole Church, which it did.
No, I can see that you're no expert. Carthage was a local council with no authority outside of North Africa. It, then, did not establish a canon for the whole Church and had no authority to do so. It was the first council to delineate the books of the New Testament we have today, but that is all. It also wasn't the first time the list had been made as it simply echoed St. Athansios' list. It didn't touch on the OT canon at all, and even after your supposed established NT canon (which you clearly misunderstand) the Ethiopian Broad canon differed - and they were not outside the Church, Chalcedon still being in the future at that point. Likewise at that time the accepted Syriac canon used throughout the Middle East was one which included the Diatessaron, not four separate Gospels, the conformation of the Syriac text with the Greek did not happen until later and then it was slowly and not instant as it would have been had they got some authoritative decree from a council. Carthage was not an Ecumenical Council and had no such authority in the first place.
The fact that Protestants tried to change it does not invalidate earlier authoritative Council declarations. The fact that we did have to defend it is proof that we aleady had one established, and it had been established authoritatively since 397.
No, we already had two established. The one used in the eastern Sees was larger (and remains so) than the Roman one. Didn't you know that? The two councils that we each were forced to call after the Reformation were due to Protestants attempting to remove books from the OT. Had we had a previous definitive canon no new council would have been necessary as we could have simply referred to the acts of the council that defined the canon. That proves that there was no time when it was established authoritatively. Anyway, for you to suggest such a thing would be to condemn Rome as you (under the influence of St. Jerome it seems) dropped Deuterocanonical books from the OT that you initially had, whilst the other four Patriarchal Sees never did.
This goes to an entirely different discussion that we don't need to go into.
No, it was a statement of fact that even you could not possibly deny given that you must admit that both the Oriental Orthodox and Assyrian Church of the East were not in communion with Rome and that the Eastern Sees did not accept Roman authority over them. It was also in response to Yippityyak's question and not directed at you.
Again, the fact that heretical groups individually form their own beliefs and canons does not negate the validity of the Church's authority to establish the Canon.
Nobody said it did, it just didn't happen in the way you are asserting. I suggest that you need to do a lot more research on the subject if you wish to debate it with me because at the moment you appear to be at a disadvantage due to misunderstandings and paucity of facts.
The official canon has not changed in the Church since 397.
Ours hasn't. Yours has. But then as Carthage wasn't Ecumenical and even if it had been only touched on the New Testament (which neither of us have changed) that's really academic. Your canon is just as valid as mine, it's just that your understanding of Church history appears to be full of holes.
Here, for your examination, is a table which lists the OT books of several canons. Ours is that of the original Septuagint. Yours, as you'll see, is slightly reduced (St. Jerome, was not a fan of the Deuterocanon).
http://www.geocities.com/trvalentine/orthodox/otbooks.html
James