Oeste
Well-Known Member
Hi again.........
Really!
Weight of evidence?
I tried to start at the beginning and got nowhere...... I suggested that we simply start with accurate names for disciples and Yeshua........... Nada.
Nada???
Here was Rick's response to your assertion, given days ago. Doesn't look like like "nada" to me:
This is a most ridiculous statement. You claim umbridge because we English speaking Christians use the English translation of the Bible that employs the English rendition of the Hebrew names.
"Some people claim that our Lord should not be referred to as “Jesus.” Instead, we should only use the name “Yeshua.” Some even go so far as to say that calling Him “Jesus” is blasphemous. Others go into great detail about how the name “Jesus” is unbiblical because the letter J is a modern invention and there was no letter J in Greek or Hebrew.
Yeshua is the Hebrew name, and its English spelling is “Joshua.” Iesous is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name, and its English spelling is “Jesus.” Thus, the names “Joshua” and “Jesus” are essentially the same; both are English pronunciations of the Hebrew and Greek names for our Lord. (For examples of how the two names are interchangeable, see Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 in the KJV. In both cases, the word Jesus refers to the Old Testament character Joshua.)
As for the controversy over the letter J, it is much ado about nothing. It is true that the languages in which the Bible was written had no letter J. But that doesn’t mean the Bible never refers to “Jerusalem.” And it doesn’t mean we cannot use the spelling “Jesus.” If a person speaks and reads English, it is acceptable for him to spell things in an English fashion. Spellings can change even within a language: Americans write “Savior,” while the British write “Saviour.” The addition of a u (or its subtraction, depending on your point of view) has nothing to do with whom we’re talking about. Jesus is the Savior, and He is the Saviour. Jesus and Yeshuah and Iesus are all referring to the same Person.
The Bible nowhere commands us to only speak or write His name in Hebrew or Greek. It never even hints at such an idea. Rather, when the message of the gospel was being proclaimed on the Day of Pentecost, the apostles spoke in the languages of the “Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene” (Acts 2:9–10). In the power of the Holy Spirit, Jesus was made known to every language group in a way they could readily understand. Spelling did not matter.
We refer to Him as “Jesus” because, as English-speaking people, we know of Him through English translations of the Greek New Testament. Scripture does not value one language over another, and it gives no indication that we must resort to Hebrew when addressing the Lord. The command is to “call on the name of the Lord,” with the promise that we “shall be saved” (Acts 2:21; Joel 2:32). Whether we call on Him in English, Korean, Hindi, or Hebrew, the result is the same: the Lord is salvation.
You could start with the nativity story but I haven't seen a proposed birth date or explanation for the differing accounts.
You could explain why G-Mark describes an 11-12 month mission and G-John a 3 year mission?
You could explain why G-John's last passover week is totally different to G-Mark's.
You could explain how the resurrection is proved when the tomb was left for over a day?
Focus, Old Badger. We started with the assertion that the bible declares Jesus is God.
You see........ splurging the pages with waffle is not a scholarly approach to provenance. Short sharp bite-sized chunks win the day, but sadly these tend to show that Jesus was an insurrectionist would-be Meshiah rather than a Greek Christ!
This sounds like unsupported waffle that is totally unrelated to thread theme to me.