I read this a month ago or so when it came out. I am generally sympathetic to the general point about Christians not understanding the Bible very well, but I think a lot of the actual analysis is pretty shallow. For example
- The quote from Ehrman about textual variations is a little misleading, and probably out of context. 99% of those variations amount to typos. They go on to say that a little later, but it still seems a bit over-dramatized
- There isn’t actually any real issue with translating προσκυνέω, it just requires a footnote. It's a standard translational difficulty that the translated words can't really encompass the entire meaning and connotation of the original.
- The KJV isn't the gold standard of bibles (I guess this is a nitpick)
- The question about the Trinity ends up pre-supposing that somehow the fact that the 4th century formulation of trinitarianism doesn't appear as such in the Bible makes it invalid. Basically it pre-supposes sola scriptura, but that's also not in the Bible
- They also characterize that as a deception but I think that's reading the assumption back into church history in an anachronistic way. Not that the politics of the 4th century Byzantine empire is without machinations, and it's certainly true that most people underappreciate the variety of Christian belief in the first several centuries, but they don't really demonstrate any deception. What is certainly true, imo, is that "Christology" in the Bible is ambiguous at best, hence the controversy to begin with.
- Then they imply that the fact that "form" could have been translated "image" in Philippians is deceptive, but that seems like a non-sequitur. The hymn in Colossians 1 uses "image of God", and certainly has a pretty high Christology. "He is before all things and in him all things hold together".
- They mention 1 Corinthians 8 but ignore the fact that there are interesting arguments (mainly N.T. Wright's, I think) that 1 Cor 8:6 actually holds a very high Christology also, in using Kyrios in a way that references the Septuagint translation of the Tetragrammaton, and in the way that Paul recites this formulation (One God, the Father...and One Lord, Jesus Christ) in support of the unity of God, against the reality of idols. I suppose it's sort of nit-picky to object that they don't mention this but given the knowing tone of the article it seems like it's worth pointing out as an objection. Mainly the problem is they present the issue as if it's very clear cut and one-sided, and I think it's really quite a bit more ambiguous than that.