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The different Biblical canons.

Good-Ole-Rebel

*banned*
...I'm sorry, what? Do you think that every single Biblical scholar just decided to make up the idea of a Greek version of the Old Testament with a greater number of books than the much later Masoretic recension? The existence, composition and dating of the Septuagint is a settled matter among scholars, regardless of denomination or even religion.


Septuagint - Wikipedia

The date of the 3rd century BCE is supported for the Torah translation by a number of factors including the Greek being representative of early Koine Greek, citations beginning as early as the 2nd century BCE, and early manuscripts datable to the 2nd century.[16]

After the Torah, other books were translated over the next two to three centuries. It is not altogether clear which was translated when or where; some may even have been translated twice into different versions and then revised.[17] The quality and style of the different translators also varied considerably from book to book from a literal translation to paraphrasing to an interpretative style.

The translation process of the Septuagint itself and from the Septuagint into other versions can be broken down into several distinct stages, during which the social milieu of the translators shifted from Hellenistic Judaism to Early Christianity. The translation of the Septuagint itself began in the 3rd century BCE and was completed by 132 BCE[18][19] initially in Alexandria but in time elsewhere as well.[8] The Septuagint is the basis for the Old Latin, Slavonic, Syriac, Old Armenian, Old Georgian, and Coptic versions of the Christian Old Testament.[20]

Additionally, the oldest Christian Bibles that we have contain the books of the New Testament in the Septuagint ordering. For example, check out the Codex Sinaiticus, written in the mid-300's AD: Codex Sinaiticus - See The Manuscript | Genesis |

I am always surprised at the people who buy into this so called 'Septuagint'. Yes, even so called 'scholars' . Yes, even those who I have respect for.

The only evidence for a 'Septuagint' comes from a 'Letter of Aristas'. It has been proven to be a lie. Yet even though it has been proven, people will not let go of this so called 'Septuagint'. They rather say that parts of it are a lie, but it must have been true in general.

The claim is that the Septuagint dates at around 250 B.C. But there are no Greek Old Testament manuscripts dated that early.

No, the oldest Christian Bibles we have contain the books of the New Testament. I'm not sure what Bibles you are alluding to.

Again, produce for me the oldest Septuagint that we have.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
I am always surprised at the people who buy into this so called 'Septuagint'. Yes, even so called 'scholars' . Yes, even those who I have respect for.

The only evidence for a 'Septuagint' comes from a 'Letter of Aristas'. It has been proven to be a lie. Yet even though it has been proven, people will not let go of this so called 'Septuagint'. They rather say that parts of it are a lie, but it must have been true in general.

The claim is that the Septuagint dates at around 250 B.C. But there are no Greek Old Testament manuscripts dated that early.

No, the oldest Christian Bibles we have contain the books of the New Testament. I'm not sure what Bibles you are alluding to.

Again, produce for me the oldest Septuagint that we have.

Good-Ole-Rebel
Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus from the year 350 are both extensive and quite complete. There are more fragmentary manuscripts that date earlier; for example, Origen's lost work Hexapla was a verse-by-verse comparison of the Septuagint with 3 other extant Greek manuscript traditions of the OT in the 200's, alongside 2 Hebrew manuscript traditions. There are even earlier fragments of the Septuagint if you take a few minutes to Google it. Literally in my last post I gave you a link to view the actual manuscript for the Codex Sinaiticus. Here it is again: Codex Sinaiticus - See The Manuscript | Genesis |

Also, I don't know how you can call the Septuagint a lie when the Septuagint is regularly consulted by every Biblical scholar in the process of preparing a new translation of the Old Testament, and when one of my Bibles has the Septuagint as its Old Testament. Denying the existence of the Septuagint is like denying the existence of New Zealand.
 

whirlingmerc

Well-Known Member
Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus from the year 350 are both extensive and quite complete. There are more fragmentary manuscripts that date earlier; for example, Origen's lost work Hexapla was a verse-by-verse comparison of the Septuagint with 3 other extant Greek manuscript traditions of the OT in the 200's, alongside 2 Hebrew manuscript traditions. There are even earlier fragments of the Septuagint if you take a few minutes to Google it. Literally in my last post I gave you a link to view the actual manuscript for the Codex Sinaiticus. Here it is again: Codex Sinaiticus - See The Manuscript | Genesis |

Also, I don't know how you can call the Septuagint a lie when the Septuagint is regularly consulted by every Biblical scholar in the process of preparing a new translation of the Old Testament, and when one of my Bibles has the Septuagint as its Old Testament. Denying the existence of the Septuagint is like denying the existence of New Zealand.

Some would argue this statement of Jesus was meant in a chronological sense about scripture with a start and finish and that leaves the time of the Maccabees off.

“From the blood of Abel [Gen. 4:8] to the blood of Zechariah [2 Chron. 24:20], who was killed between the altar and the house of God; yes, I tell you, it shall be charged against this generation (Lk. 11:51; cf. Mt. 23:35).”
 

whirlingmerc

Well-Known Member
That settles it then, the Septuagint doesn’t exist...:p

A better argument is the apocryphal books even acknowledge that there were no prophets in Israel at their time (cf. 1 Macc. 9:27; 14:41). No prophets at the time of writings.

Yet the New Testament says 'all scripture is breathed by God' and so not does a non prophet effectively produce the words of God? The old testament cannon of protestants for example has all the books written by a prophet or somehow authorized by a prophet.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

*banned*
Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus from the year 350 are both extensive and quite complete. There are more fragmentary manuscripts that date earlier; for example, Origen's lost work Hexapla was a verse-by-verse comparison of the Septuagint with 3 other extant Greek manuscript traditions of the OT in the 200's, alongside 2 Hebrew manuscript traditions. There are even earlier fragments of the Septuagint if you take a few minutes to Google it. Literally in my last post I gave you a link to view the actual manuscript for the Codex Sinaiticus. Here it is again: Codex Sinaiticus - See The Manuscript | Genesis |

Also, I don't know how you can call the Septuagint a lie when the Septuagint is regularly consulted by every Biblical scholar in the process of preparing a new translation of the Old Testament, and when one of my Bibles has the Septuagint as its Old Testament. Denying the existence of the Septuagint is like denying the existence of New Zealand.

Are you calling Codex Vaticanus, and Sinaiticus the earliest copies of the Septuagint? They are manuscripts, yes. That they come from any so called Septuagint...why? Only because of the fake 'Letter of Aristeas' claimed the existence of such.

The supposed Septuagint is found only in three of the oldest manuscripts. Alexandrinus, Sinaiticus, and Vaticanus. These are dated 4th and 5th century A.D.

The only other writing containing the Old Testament in Greek is "Paprus #458". It contains some of (Deut. 23-28) in eight small fragments. It is dated mid-second centry B.C. These few fragments prove nothing of a Septuagint being in existence.

Origen's Hexapla, written in 3rd century A.D. contains his translation in Greek of the Old Testament. But why is that supposed to be a copy of the Septuagint. It is in reality just Origen's translation of the Old Testament in Greek. And, your oldest manuscripts, Vaticanus, Sinaiticus, and Alexandrinus, could be just products of Origen's Hexepla.

In other words, there is no reason to ascribe these oldest manuscripts to any so called Septuagint other than the 'Letter to Aristeas' which has been proven to be a fraud. This is why I call it a lie. I too am amazed at how many Bible scholars continue to accept this lie.

There is no Septuagint to consult by any scholars. They are merely consulting the three oldest manuscripts and Origens Hexapla. None of which date before the time of Christ.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

Kenny

Face to face with my Father
Premium Member
I'm interested in your opinion about the Biblical Canons.
Why do you think there are different ones? Are all right or is only one right but the rest wrong? But why does God protect one but not the other?
And which Biblical Canon do you use?
otcanon.jpg
As a Protestant, i would subscribe to the first column.

The others, for protestants, is more historical than canon.

Certainly, with so much that we agree one, I would stay within that scope and not argue about the differences within the body of Christ (whenever possible).
 

1213

Well-Known Member
I'm interested in your opinion about the Biblical Canons.
Why do you think there are different ones? Are all right or is only one right but the rest wrong? ...

I don’t think the rest are necessary wrong, they may just be not as important as some.
 

firedragon

Veteran Member
Codex Vaticanus and Codex Sinaiticus from the year 350 are both extensive and quite complete. There are more fragmentary manuscripts that date earlier; for example, Origen's lost work Hexapla was a verse-by-verse comparison of the Septuagint with 3 other extant Greek manuscript traditions of the OT in the 200's, alongside 2 Hebrew manuscript traditions. There are even earlier fragments of the Septuagint if you take a few minutes to Google it. Literally in my last post I gave you a link to view the actual manuscript for the Codex Sinaiticus. Here it is again: Codex Sinaiticus - See The Manuscript | Genesis |

Also, I don't know how you can call the Septuagint a lie when the Septuagint is regularly consulted by every Biblical scholar in the process of preparing a new translation of the Old Testament, and when one of my Bibles has the Septuagint as its Old Testament. Denying the existence of the Septuagint is like denying the existence of New Zealand.

Brother. With all due respect, when you say the Septuagint was consulted for translations, what you mean is "the current greek translation people call septuagint". Be a little more alert about everything. It is only in theory that the Septuagint was written in the 3rd century BC, and that is too only the first five books of the OT, the Torah, the pentateuch. The rest is also "only in theory" believed to have been added in the 2nd century BC. So even if you are to call something a septuagint, know that it was originally only the Torah or the pentateuch.

And since you view the Codex Sinaiticus, why would you think the current New Testament canon is different to Sinaiticus? Shepard of Hermas and Epistle of Barnabas is not in the current Bible "New Testament". Why? When you say Sinaiticus extensive and quite complete, then any of the current bibles are completely "incomplete" because there are books missing.

Think a bit. What is the supposed septuagint manuscript Oregon had to compare with the Hebrew text? Which one? The oldest Torah? The newer Tanah? Which one is the real septuagint? Do you know that the legend of the Septuagint is written by someone probably some 200 plus years before Jesus and he wrote with a pseudo name aristreas? That man was a poet who lived in the 7th century, and someone comes after 500 years and pretends he aristreas. And that is the only legend we have to know the story the septuagint.

I am not denying the existence of the septuagint here and I know that you intended this post to someone else, but I'm just pointing you to think a bit. New Zealand is on the map. The septuagint is obscure. It has a vague history while the legend is written in a letter attributed to an old poet written by a pseudo author half a millennium later.

So dont be so sure. Make a study before you make claims like that brother.

Anyway I dont mean to offend you. Take it as a discussion.

Peace.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
The claim is that the Septuagint dates at around 250 B.C. But there are no Greek Old Testament manuscripts dated that early...

Again, produce for me the oldest Septuagint that we have.
We have no original manuscripts.

It was important for the Jewish community to translate their scriptures into Greek because that was the language mostly used by scholars in the diasporah in the Mediterranean region. Therefore, there is nothing intrinsically wrong with the Septuagint, especially because no version of the Bible, then and now, is original. To say that it is is like saying that we should throw our English-language Bible into the garbage because it's not an original manuscript.

And translating from one language to another is fraught with problems as both Hebrew and Koine Greek as spoken and written thousands of years ago is not the same as modern Hebrew or modern Greek. For example, about 1/3 if the birds in Torah that are "treif" (not kosher) we don't what they are.

And the point becomes moot anyway as almost all current translations use both the Jerusalem and Septuagint texts and the DSS.
 

Shiranui117

Pronounced Shee-ra-noo-ee
Premium Member
Brother. With all due respect, when you say the Septuagint was consulted for translations, what you mean is "the current greek translation people call septuagint". Be a little more alert about everything. It is only in theory that the Septuagint was written in the 3rd century BC, and that is too only the first five books of the OT, the Torah, the pentateuch. The rest is also "only in theory" believed to have been added in the 2nd century BC. So even if you are to call something a septuagint, know that it was originally only the Torah or the pentateuch.
I'll trust Biblical and historical scholars when they say we have citations of the LXX in the works of Jewish writers from the 2nd century BC.

And since you view the Codex Sinaiticus, why would you think the current New Testament canon is different to Sinaiticus? Shepard of Hermas and Epistle of Barnabas is not in the current Bible "New Testament". Why? When you say Sinaiticus extensive and quite complete, then any of the current bibles are completely "incomplete" because there are books missing.
Yes, because the New Testament canon wasn't definitively settled until the 500's. This is the reason the Book of Revelation isn't ever read from in Byzantine-rite churches--we wrote our church lectionaries in the 400's before Revelation was definitively in the NT. Antioch had a 22-book New Testament for a good long while, and the Coptic tradition for a while had 31 New Testament books.

Think a bit. What is the supposed septuagint manuscript Oregon had to compare with the Hebrew text? Which one? The oldest Torah? The newer Tanah? Which one is the real septuagint? Do you know that the legend of the Septuagint is written by someone probably some 200 plus years before Jesus and he wrote with a pseudo name aristreas? That man was a poet who lived in the 7th century, and someone comes after 500 years and pretends he aristreas. And that is the only legend we have to know the story the septuagint.
The copying of the Old Testament back in the day wasn't nearly as consistent as it is today. The LXX and Masoretic Text both had a multitude of recensions and subvariations as they were copied among various communities and down along various lineages. Origen was trying to figure out which variant of the LXX was the "critical text", as it were.

I am not denying the existence of the septuagint here and I know that you intended this post to someone else, but I'm just pointing you to think a bit. New Zealand is on the map. The septuagint is obscure. It has a vague history while the legend is written in a letter attributed to an old poet written by a pseudo author half a millennium later.
Even if the legend about the initial composition of the Septuagint is off, the Septuagint does have an established presence in the literature between the early centuries BC and AD.

So dont be so sure. Make a study before you make claims like that brother.

Anyway I dont mean to offend you. Take it as a discussion.

Peace.
Hundreds of scholars across every denomination and religion (and lack thereof) already have.
 

firedragon

Veteran Member
I'll trust Biblical and historical scholars when they say we have citations of the LXX in the works of Jewish writers from the 2nd century BC.

Yes, because the New Testament canon wasn't definitively settled until the 500's. This is the reason the Book of Revelation isn't ever read from in Byzantine-rite churches--we wrote our church lectionaries in the 400's before Revelation was definitively in the NT. Antioch had a 22-book New Testament for a good long while, and the Coptic tradition for a while had 31 New Testament books.

The copying of the Old Testament back in the day wasn't nearly as consistent as it is today. The LXX and Masoretic Text both had a multitude of recensions and subvariations as they were copied among various communities and down along various lineages. Origen was trying to figure out which variant of the LXX was the "critical text", as it were.

Even if the legend about the initial composition of the Septuagint is off, the Septuagint does have an established presence in the literature between the early centuries BC and AD.

Hundreds of scholars across every denomination and religion (and lack thereof) already have.

Your faith bro. Cheers.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

*banned*
We have no original manuscripts.

It was important for the Jewish community to translate their scriptures into Greek because that was the language mostly used by scholars in the diasporah in the Mediterranean region. Therefore, there is nothing intrinsically wrong with the Septuagint, especially because no version of the Bible, then and now, is original. To say that it is is like saying that we should throw our English-language Bible into the garbage because it's not an original manuscript.

And translating from one language to another is fraught with problems as both Hebrew and Koine Greek as spoken and written thousands of years ago is not the same as modern Hebrew or modern Greek. For example, about 1/3 if the birds in Torah that are "treif" (not kosher) we don't what they are.

And the point becomes moot anyway as almost all current translations use both the Jerusalem and Septuagint texts and the DSS.

You are correct, we have no original manuscripts. But, that really isn't the point here. The point is that the 'Septuagint' doesn't and never did exist. The Letter of Aristeas has been proven to be a fraud. This is the only source for any existence of a 'Septuagint'.

That the Hebrew Old Testament was later translated into Greek, yes it was. But, not at the time that the supposed Septuagint was. The earliest fragment known, and it is just a fragment, is dated 2nd century B.C. It proves nothing for the existence of a Septuagint or that it was part of any complete translation of the Old Testament. Origins Hexapla is the copy of the Old Testament in Greek. And it is dated 3rd century A.D.

Why is this important, because the claim is often made that Christ and the disciples quoted the supposed Septuagint, which compares to Origins Hexepla. But that is not true as the Septuagint didn't exist. So when the supposed Septuagint is being used to clarify or translate the Old Testament, it is simply using Origen's translation of the Old Testament which didn't exist till 3rd century A.D. Christ and the disciples did not quote from any Septuagint.

Many want Christ and the disciples to quote from some supposed Septuagint, because it would lend credibility to the Apocryphal books which are contained in the supposed Septuagint. When in reality they are contained in the oldest three manuscripts we have dated 4th century A.D. And they, the Apocryphal writings, are contained in Origen's Hexapla, dated 3rd century A.D.

Yes, translating is tough. Which is why it is necessary to have many translators involved in any one translation. In other words, to have one man translate is just one man's translation. Which is what you have with Origen's translation. Which is all the so called Septuagint is. Thus the need for the myth of the translators in Alexandria coming up with the Septuagint sometime in 4th century B.C. The story provides many translators, and it takes us back before the time of Christ and the disciples.

Yes most modern translations come from the Minority Text. The Alexandrian Text. Which is based upon mainly the three oldest manuscripts which most say support the Septuagint. But which is nothing but Origen's Hexapla. This is why there is such a difference in the modern translations compared to the older translations. The Majority Text uses the Masoretic Text for the Old Testament which is what the Jews in Palestine use to produce their Tanakh.

The Jews of Palestine rejected the Alexandrian method of translating as they were prone to accept Greek philosophy and would try and merge or interpret the writings of their Scripture with Greek philosophy. And Origen was an Alexandrian Jew.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

Dawnofhope

Non-Proselytizing Baha'i
Staff member
Premium Member
I'm interested in your opinion about the Biblical Canons.
Why do you think there are different ones? Are all right or is only one right but the rest wrong? But why does God protect one but not the other?
And which Biblical Canon do you use?
otcanon.jpg
From a Baha’i perspective the Torah and Gospels are considered under God’s protection and all that God wanted to convey through Moses and Jesus are within these books. However we may not take some parts as literally as some Christians.

In addition the Baha’i writings refer to many books in the Protestant Bible. There is no reason to believe any of the books contained there in are not worthy of being considered canonical.

I’m not aware of any references to apocryphal books in the Baha’i writings so the relative merits or otherwise would be a matter for biblical scholars to determine.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Many want Christ and the disciples to quote from some supposed Septuagint,
The oldest copies that we have of the gospels are actually from the LXX, plus maybe read this from a non-Christian source: Septuagint - Wikipedia

The Jews of Palestine rejected the Alexandrian method of translating as they were prone to accept Greek philosophy and would try and merge or interpret the writings of their Scripture with Greek philosophy.
The Jerusalem text has always been considered being of the highest standard, but we simply do not have that original text, and we know that some errors and additions crept into the texts because when the DSS was found there had to be corrections made to existing translations, although none of them was significant enough to be concerned about. Since Christianity largely moved out of eretz Israel into the diasporah, the oldest copies we have that include the words of Jesus used are from the LXX according the theologian William Barclay (Anglican).

The reason why the LXX is not considered of the highest standard isn't due to intentional falsehoods but with the difficulty of moving from one language to another. Anyone who knows and speaks at least two languages well knows that some words don't translate well into another language without adding words of explanation. "Agape", for example, is one of those words, whereas there really no exact equivalent in English.

The bottom line is that there is no significant concern amongst theologians dealing with the LXX.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

*banned*
The oldest copies that we have of the gospels are actually from the LXX, plus maybe read this from a non-Christian source: Septuagint - Wikipedia

The Jerusalem text has always been considered being of the highest standard, but we simply do not have that original text, and we know that some errors and additions crept into the texts because when the DSS was found there had to be corrections made to existing translations, although none of them was significant enough to be concerned about. Since Christianity largely moved out of eretz Israel into the diasporah, the oldest copies we have that include the words of Jesus used are from the LXX according the theologian William Barclay (Anglican).

The reason why the LXX is not considered of the highest standard isn't due to intentional falsehoods but with the difficulty of moving from one language to another. Anyone who knows and speaks at least two languages well knows that some words don't translate well into another language without adding words of explanation. "Agape", for example, is one of those words, whereas there really no exact equivalent in English.

The bottom line is that there is no significant concern amongst theologians dealing with the LXX.

"of the Gospels"?? The Septuagint is not a copy of the Gospels.

Good-Ole-Rebel
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
"of the Gospels"?? The Septuagint is not a copy of the Gospels.
I didn't say it was, but theologians who specialize in Koine Greek say that the oldest versions of the gospels, when they "quote" Jesus, the wording indicates that they're using the LXX. This stands to logic since the LXX was the most widely used in the diasporah, so the early Church would logically use what's more understood there than was Hebrew since the latter is more narrowly regional.
 

Good-Ole-Rebel

*banned*
I didn't say it was, but theologians who specialize in Koine Greek say that the oldest versions of the gospels, when they "quote" Jesus, the wording indicates that they're using the LXX. This stands to logic since the LXX was the most widely used in the diasporah, so the early Church would logically use what's more understood there than was Hebrew since the latter is more narrowly regional.

When in the Gospels, Jesus quotes the Old Testament, He is not quoting from any Septuagint. There was and is no Septuagint. The Maserotic Text is the Hebrew Text of the Old Testament. That is what Jesus and others quote from when they are quoting the Old Testament.

In translating the Old Testament into Greek, such as Origen did, there were certain problems with quotes from those who quoted the Old Testament, such as Christ or Paul. Origen, and others of the Alexandrian Jews, were quite willing to change the translation to fit better with what they believed should represent Jesus, or to remove contradictions. Or, to leave out things they thought should not be there. Bad move. The translator is to translate. Not determine if something should be changed or left out.

With the three oldest Manuscripts, Alexandrius, Vaticanus, and Sinaiticus, they contain a large majority of the Bible in Greek. Both Old and New Testament. This makes the Old Testament part, a translation from Hebrew to Greek. And they are the oldest manuscripts. 4th century A.D.

They agree with Origen's translation of the Old Testament in his Hexapla, a 2nd century A.D. work. Because in all likelihood they are copied from Origen's work. Origen's work made Bible problems more adaptable. Less of a problem. But in doing so, he tainted his work.

So, there is no Septuagint. You have Origen's Hexapla. You have the three oldest agreeing with Origen because they are most likely copied from Origen. Therefore the New Testament quotes from these three Oldest manuscripts naturally are in agreement with the oldest translation, which is from Origen, because they are copies from Origen.


Good-Ole-Rebel
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
When in the Gospels, Jesus quotes the Old Testament, He is not quoting from any Septuagint. There was and is no Septuagint. The Maserotic Text is the Hebrew Text of the Old Testament. That is what Jesus and others quote from when they are quoting the Old Testament.

In translating the Old Testament into Greek, such as Origen did, there were certain problems with quotes from those who quoted the Old Testament, such as Christ or Paul. Origen, and others of the Alexandrian Jews, were quite willing to change the translation to fit better with what they believed should represent Jesus, or to remove contradictions. Or, to leave out things they thought should not be there. Bad move. The translator is to translate. Not determine if something should be changed or left out.

With the three oldest Manuscripts, Alexandrius, Vaticanus, and Sinaiticus, they contain a large majority of the Bible in Greek. Both Old and New Testament. This makes the Old Testament part, a translation from Hebrew to Greek. And they are the oldest manuscripts. 4th century A.D.

They agree with Origen's translation of the Old Testament in his Hexapla, a 2nd century A.D. work. Because in all likelihood they are copied from Origen's work. Origen's work made Bible problems more adaptable. Less of a problem. But in doing so, he tainted his work.

So, there is no Septuagint. You have Origen's Hexapla. You have the three oldest agreeing with Origen because they are most likely copied from Origen. Therefore the New Testament quotes from these three Oldest manuscripts naturally are in agreement with the oldest translation, which is from Origen, because they are copies from Origen.


Good-Ole-Rebel
Here:
It is estimated that the first five books of the Hebrew Bible, known as the Torah or Pentateuch, were translated in the mid-3rd century BCE and the remaining texts were translated in the 2nd century BCE. The Septuagint was the Koine Greek translation of the Hebrew Old Testament and was in wide use by the time of Jesus and Paul of Tarsus because most Jews could no longer read Hebrew. For this reason it is quoted more often than the Hebrew Old Testament in the New Testament, particularly in the Pauline epistles, by the Apostolic Fathers, and later by the Greek Church Fathers... -- Septuagint - Wikipedia
 
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