Okay, so it might seem like I'm off on an Islam week, I guess I am, but here we go.
The Gospel was not 'revealed' to Jesus. Period. Jesus preached and the disciples wrote down what he preached, which became the Gospel. Or the four gospels, if you prefer.
Muslims, please give me any evidence that:
a) the NT text is totally corrupted and just not what it was originally so much so that we can't rely on a word of it.
b) the gospel was revealed to Jesus. If so, what was this 'other gospel'?
without using Qur'an or any of that apocryphal nonsense.
Thanks.
Peace be on you.
Gospels do not constitute the utterances of Jesus (on whom be peace) or his disciples. Jesus was a Jew and so were his disciples. If any of Jesus' utterances were to be found preserved in their originality, they could only be in the Hebrew language.
The language which Jesus and his disciples spoke was Hebrew, not Latin or Greek. So copies of the New Testament written down in Latin or Greek must have been written down long after the time of Jesus, at a time when Christianity had begun to penetrate into Roman territory and Roman imperialist power had become divided into the Italian and Greek parts.
Nations do not easily give up their language. It is for them as valuable an inheritance as any property or other possession. Roman rule in Palestine had begun only about fifty years before the advent of Jesus. This is not long enough for a people to forget their language. But there are other important considerations also to be kept in view [8 of these are given]
Jesus said [Matthew. 5: 17-18] :
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets : I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
From this it is evident that the mission of Jesus was to restore Mosaic teaching, but the Gospel as we have it today teaches that the Mosaic teaching was abrogated completely by Jesus. It is quite clear, therefore, that the present New Testament is not what Jesus taught and preached.
Testimony of Christian scholars is also present.
Deletion took place:
In John (5 : 2-5) we had
: Now there is at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches. In these lay a great multitude of impotent folk, of blind, halt, withered, waiting for the moving of the water. For an angel went down at a certain season into the pool, and troubled the water: whosoever then first after the troubling of the water stepped in was made whole of whatsoever disease he had. And a certain man was there, which had an infirmity thirty and eight years. When Jesus saw him lie, and knew that he had been now a long time in that case, said he unto him, Wilt thou be made whole ?
For hundreds of years we had this account reproduced in the Gospels. Nobody ever thought that it was unreliable. But when there began controversies between the Muslims and the Christians in the nineteenth century, verse 4 and part of v. 3 were deleted from the above passage in the Revised Version published in 1881, out of fear of Muslim criticism, and it was noted on the margin that many ancient authorities insert, wholly, or in part, the words deleted from the text. The question is, when this portion was found in many ancient authorities, why was the change made. Moreover, the very fact that a certain verse is found in certain copies and is missing in others is a proof of the fact that the original text has been tampered with.
Reference and More -- From page 47 @
https://www.alislam.org/library/books/Introduction-Study-Holy-Quran.pdf
=== Furthermore, it is clear that Jesus migrated to Kashmir after surviving cross, getting cure, his mother was with him, he travelled though Iran, Afghanistan to Kashmir to meet the lost tribes.....
https://www.alislam.org/topics/jesus/
He must have spoken a lot there. It should be found too.
Tibetan Buddhism has colour of Christain teaching.
The fact that Christian teaching and ritual have deeply affected Tibetan Buddhism necessitates the belief that Jesus must have visited the Tibetan people. Moreover, the fact that the zealous followers of Buddhism, as stated in Buddhistic records, had always expected to meet him, cries aloud that this ardent desire of theirs heralded his visit to this country. In the face of both these facts, an impartial person has no need to search through Buddhistic records for the statement that Jesus did come to Tibet. For, according to the prophecy of the Buddha, the desire for the Buddha's second advent being strong, the prophecy itself must have attracted Jesus to Tibet. It must be noted that the word 'Metteyya' mentioned frequently in Buddhistic books is undoubtedly the word 'Messiah'.
Ref:
https://www.alislam.org/library/books/jesus-in-india/ch4.html
There is information about "Banned from the Bible" @
http://www.alislam.org/egazette/articles/Banned-from-Bible-200905.pdf
