Just posted you a verse of the Quran (21:105) quoting the
Psalms 37:29; thus you ignore religious texts, and follow the scholars instead, which isn't logical or a believer.
Ignoring your rather low statements and insults I will take that verse.
A lot of people quote this to say Muhammed copied from the Bible. Among of course others as well. Very similar to those who claim the Bible copied from some other book etc etc.
Quran: And We have written in the scripture (alzuboori): “After the remembrance, that the earth will be inherited by My servants who do good.”
Bible-Psalms: The righteous shall inherit the land, And dwell therein for ever.
The parallel theory -
The parallel word for the Hebrew word Saddikim is the arabic word Saddikin. Thats the beauty of sister languages. The word used in the Quran is Salaha. When you say Islaha it means reform. Salihin. Not the real meaning that the Hebrew word Saddikim or the arabic parallel Saddikin means. This is common knowledge. Nothing special.
Also, how about Matthew 5:5 which says "Blessed are the meek, for they will inherit the earth"? Naah. That doesn't make anything. But that word Meek or "composed ones" (praeis) is a better parallel to the word Saliheen than the Hebrew word Saddikim in Psalms 37.
There are many many statements in the Bible that are parallel to the Quran. For example, eye for an eye tooth for a tooth. But the ideas are very different if you read them both. And these things are no reason to assess that this and that is matching and that makes it the book as quoted in another book. Thats an absurd assessment.
Anyway, what you have done is get hooked on the word Righteous. The English word righteous. Just like Christliches Ahrens who you have quoted in your wikipedia link provided. His theory is what you propagate. But you have not understood the intricacies of what he proposes because your assessment is based on the English word "Righteous". Wrong assessment. Misplaced. Long time ago people like Arthur Jeffrey and in modern times Said Reynolds quote Ahrens in their work. What he said was that there are parallels and this is one. But there's more to it than just using an English word Righteous and saying this makes your case.
There are mainly three things that you would translate as righteous.
1. One is Saddikin the same as the Biblical Saddikim. The root meaning of this is truth, confirmation, innocent, just. One word translation is the word "righteous" because its easy. Or you have to explain it.
2. The second one is Salihin which is also sometimes translated as righteous but it in its root means someone who is trying to reform. When you think from the arabic word its a different connotation.
3. The third is Muththakeen. The root Thakiyya in its root means "that sense in you that makes you do the right thing and stops you from doing the wrong thing". In English you could translate it as righteous but it means a sense as I explained. Its difficult to give one word to it. Thats why a lot of people translate it as "God conscious". Its that consciousness.
One has to understand the root of the arabic language to get this bit clearly. All three of these words are there in the Quran and depending on the translation mostly all three words have been translated as "righteous". So you have got hooked onto this English word and not the Arabic word which is different to the Psalm 37. And your most prominent argument is based on one single parallel you think is paramount.
Compare the verses.
Quran: And We have written in the scripture (alzuboori): “After the remembrance, that the earth will be inherited by My servants who do good (Salihoon).”
Bible-Psalms: The righteous (Sadhdhikim) shall inherit the land, And dwell therein for ever.
1. After the Dhikr part is not there in the biblical narrative.
2. They shall dwell forever part is not there in the Quran.
3. It is a different word Salihoon vs Sadhdhikin. Not parallel.
This is almost a desperate attempt.
The Qurans message is that there is a day of reckoning. A lot of things will happen. And the dhikr, the reminder will come. And after that, the earth or ardh will be for those people who reform, do good. What the Quran says in this verse is that it was written in the Zaboor. It is not pointing to the Psalms in the Bible. Psalms in the Bible could be an inherited name like Torah and this is a common theme. Any book in the Bible could and probably does pick up remnants from what was revealed earlier. Any book. That does not make it the revelation. Psalms has a lot of descriptions about who will inherit the land. The blessed of God, the humble, the patient ones who wait for the lord, etc. Isiah also has a parallel to the Psalms where it says the righteous shall inherit the land. The Psalms in the Bible may be inheriting from the original psalms. Of course. Maybe it inherited many things. A lot of things. A few things. We don't know. But this is not at all the exact Psalms that was revealed to David.
Psalms
When did King David live? According to the Bible? 1,000 BC? Did he write about being in exile? Did he narrate about being in exile? Why would the psalms then lament about being in exile? When were they exiled to Babylon? 5th century BC? In that case did David narrate or write the Psalms half a millennium after he lived? The biblical story about David doesn't have anything to do with an exile to Babylon. And it is not a prediction but a lamentations of a man or a poet who was writing about a people in exile in the Iraqi peninsula. A lamentation about being conquered, exiled to a land far away, their bitterness and anger towards the edomites who sided with the Babylonian conquerers. That was not written or narrated by David. It was written half a millennium later by a scribe. By the sound of the lament some argue that it was written after the people were allowed to return to their home Judah which would have been after 538 BC with the Persian conquest of Babylon because the Psalms note that people were persecuted and made to hang their musical instruments which may mean they were not allowed to enjoy and be poetic so they had to wait for freedom. But anyway that only shows that it may have been written anytime somewhere around 587 BC to after 538 BC. So was it written after Jeremiah which mentions the deportation of people to Babylon? Which one?
Peace.