3rdAngel
Well-Known Member
Your resoponse...3rdAngel said: ↑ Ok good there are 10 Commandments in God's 10 commandments, why do you not keep God's 4th commandment when the scriptures teach that love fulfills or establsihes God's Law through faith *ROMANS 3:31; ROMANS 8:4; GALATIANS 5:16? Where is the scripture in God's Word that says God's 4th commandment has been abolished and we are now commanded to keep Sunday as a Holy day? - There is none.
Ok let's examine the evidence and see if your claims are true or not...Your argument falls down when we look carefully at the scriptures that you quote as evidence.
If you read Romans 3:31 in context, it will help to clarify the meaning.
Romans 3:26-31. 'To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. Where is the boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also: Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.'
If you read this passage carefully, you will see that there are two descriptions of the law. There is the law 'of works', and the 'law of faith'. Are the two the same? No, quite clearly they are not, for Paul says, 'Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.' What are the 'deeds of the law', if not the 'works'?
This now makes it clear that the phrase 'we establish the law' is not a reference to the Ten Commandments, or the law of works, but the law of faith.
So, what is the difference between the 'law of works' and the 'law of faith'? The simple answer is, The Holy Spirit. Once we live by the law of faith [in the Holy Spirit], we no longer live by the law of works ['without the deeds of the law'].
Conclusion: Using Romans 3:31 as evidence is a misuse of scripture.
There is no chapters in the Greek manuscript of Romans or the other books of the bible. These was added by the translators later.Let's look at the detail as you are leaving out the complete context from ROMANS 3:9-31 showing that the topic of conversation is SIN which is defined in God's LAW as breaking anyone of God's 10 commandments *JAMES 2:10-11; 1 JOHN 3:4 and that both JEW and GENTILE are all under sin.
ROMANS 3:9-31
[9], What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for WE HAVE BEFORE PROVED BOTH JEWS AND GENTILES, THAT THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN;
[10], As it is written, THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS, NO, NOT ONE:
[11], THERE IS NONE THAT UNDERSTANDS, THERE IS NONE THAT SEEKS AFTER GOD.
[12], They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; THERE IS NONE THAT DOES GOOD, NO, NOT ONE.
[13], Their throat is an open sepulcher; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:
[14], Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
[15], Their feet are swift to shed blood:
[16], Destruction and misery are in their ways:
[17], And the way of peace have they not known:
[18], There is no fear of God before their eyes.
Note: Both JEWS and GENTILES are all guilty before God "under the law" *ROMANS 3:19 because they are all under sin (v9) and there is none that are righteouss (v10) and none that does good no not one and none seek after God (v11-19)
[19], NOW WE KNOW THAT WHAT THINGS SOEVER THE LAW SAID, IT SAID TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW: THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED, AND ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.
Note: Previous context is that both JEW and GENTILE are all "under sin" none are righteouss and none do good or seek after God (v9-12). Now in v19 because all are "under sin" and there is none righteouss or none that do good we can know that the scriptures being discussed in reference to "THE LAW" is in reference to God's 10 commandments. Why? Because according to PAUL it is the 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of what sin is as shown in ROMANS 7:7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. No, I HAD NOT KNOWN SIN BUT ZBY THE LAW FOR I HAS NOT KNOWN LUST EXCEPT THAT THE LAW SAID THOU SHALT NOT COVET. This is also repeated here in v20 in the next verse here...
[20], Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN.
Note: According the new testament scriptures, sin is defined as the transgression of God's LAW *JAMES 2:10-11; 1 JOHN 3:4. God's 10 commandments have the same role they always have in the new covenant and that is to give us the knowledge of GOOD (see ROMANS 3:12) and EVIL; SIN (see ROMANS 3:9) and RIGHTEOUSNESS (see PSALMS 119:172 standard of righteousness). It is God's 10 commandments that give us the knowledge of sin when broken and the knowledge of the standard of righteoussness and good to be followed through faith *ROMANS 3:20; ROMANS 7:7; 1 JOHN 3:4 PSALMS 119:172 and if we break any one of them we stand "under the law" *ROMANS 3:19 guilty before God of sin *JAMES 2:10-11.
[21], BUT NOW THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WITHOUT THE LAW IS MANIFESTED, BEING WITNESSED BY THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS;
[22], EVEN THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WHICH IS BY FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST TO ALL AND ON ALL THEM THAT BELIEVE: FOR THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE:
[23], FOR ALL HAVE SINNED, AND COME SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD;
[24], BEING JUSTIFIED FREELY BY HIS GRACE THROUGH THE REDEMPTION THAT IS IN CHRIST JESUS:
[25], Whom God has set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
[26], TO DECLARE, I SAY, AT THIS TIME HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS: THAT HE MIGHT BE JUST, AND THE JUSTIFIER OF HIM WHICH BELIEVES IN JESUS.
[27], WHERE IS BOASTING THEN? IT IS EXCLUDED. BY WHAT LAW? OF WORKS? NO: BUT BY THE LAW OF FAITH.
[28], Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
[29], Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
[30], Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
Note: Because we have all sinned (broken God's LAW or 10 commandments) the righteousness of God without the law is manifest in JESUS through faith.
[31], DO WE THEN MAKE VOID THE LAW THROUGH FAITH? GOD FORBID: YES, WE ESTABLISH THE LAW.
Note: After the revelation of righteousness by faith in the blood of JESUS, PAUL is now stating that faith does not abolish God's LAW (10 commandments) it ESTABLISHES God's 10 commandments.
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CONCLUSION: You have ignored the scripture context which is "ALL ARE UNDER SIN AND STAND GUILTY BEFORE GOD, UNDER THE LAW, CONDEMNED BY THE LAW and that this LAW is in reference to God's 10 commandments that give us a knowledge of what sin is *ROMANS 3:20; ROMANS 7:7. Sorry my friend but I believe the evidence shown in the context of these scriptures show it is you who is misusing scripture. This only proves it is your argument that has fallen down not mine.
Hope this helps.
to be continued...
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