"THE LORD'S DAY IS THE SABBATH DAY NOT SUNDAY ACCORDING TO SCRIPTURES

[Soapy]

According to the scriptures, Jesus as the son of God was also the son of man and refers to himself as such here...

I agree that Jesus was ‘Son of man’… It means ‘A PERSON OF HUMANITY’ … As opposed to ‘A Son IN SPIRIT’ which is what is meant by ‘Son of God’ (Doer of the works of God)

• Matthew 20:28 just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.”

This is equivalent to ‘The true man’ has come to serve his fellow man and give his life…, etc.

• Matthew 8:20 Jesus *said to him, “The foxes have holes and the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay His head.”

It mean: ‘The true man’ does not seek comforts in the world.

• Matthew 9:6 But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins”—then He *said to the paralytic, “Get up, pick up your bed and go home.”

The Jews falsely believed that a man could not forgive another man a sin made against him. They accused Jesus of claiming to be ‘Almighty God’ because Jesus forgave sins. But they were wrong! Jesus told them that FORGIVING A SIN AGAINST THEM was FULLY WITHIN THEIR POWER!!!
Forgive your fellow man for a sin that man caused against you so that God may forgive a sin you made against God! This means only God can forgive a sin against God. Trinitarians are always erring by claiming it is a proof that Jesus is God since Jesus forgave sin but the forgiveness was not said to be caused by sin against God.

• Matthew 11:19 The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, ‘Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!’ Yet wisdom is vindicated by her deeds.”

‘This true man’ came eating and drinking….

• Matthew 16:13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, He was asking His disciples, “Who do people say that the Son of Man is?”

’Who do you say this man is?’

• Matthew 18:11 For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost.

’This true man’…

• Matthew 24:27 For just as the lightning comes from the east and flashes even to the west, so will the coming of the Son of Man be.
• Mark 8:38 For whoever is ashamed of Me and My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of Man will also be ashamed of him when He comes in the glory of His Father with the holy angels.”

• Luke 18:8 I tell you that He will bring about justice for them quickly. However, when the Son of Man comes, will He find faith on the earth?”
• John 1:51 And He said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, you will see the heavens opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man.”
• John 5:27 and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man.
• John 6:53 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves.
• John 12:23 And Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified.
• John 13:31 Therefore when he had gone out, Jesus *said, “Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in Him;
• Acts 7:56 and he said, “Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.”
• Revelation 1:13 and in the middle of the lampstands I saw one like a son of man, clothed in a robe reaching to the feet, and girded across His chest with a golden sash.

You really do not know the scriptures now do you. Receive Gods' correction and be blessed. Son (singular) of mankind does not mean all of mankind plural

All references to ‘Son of man’ refer to ‘This true man’ or ‘Mankind’ in general.

All mankind is a Son of Man (apart from Adam, who WAS the original human Son of God)
——————————————-

• “and among the lampstands was someone like a son of man, dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.” (Rev 1:13)

There stood, among the lamp stand, a human person (not an angel!) - a figure like that of a true man - not one flawed by Sin!

• ““In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.” (Dan 7:13)

In both verses the person is referred to a ONE from a MULTIPLICITY of similars. It doesn’t mean that that person is the ONLY ONE.

 

[samtonga43]

I’m glad you added the grossly green emoji face… at least I know you were only being jokey.

It’s irony back to 3rdAngel although it’s only a third of the length of his posts.

When he writes, he does it to try to obfuscate what he wants to say so it becomes tedious to the reader to try to interpret what he’s saying. This way responses become longer and longer and consume more and more time to an opponent.

In doing so it’s easy not to read sections and not to even respond in total to all he says…. This leads to him reposting links and swathes of text demanding that the opponent respond to them - and ADDING even more things to respond to from him.

And be it noted that no answer I give him is worthy so he claims I did not reply to the myriad questions he asks…. AND when I ask to state EXACTLY what he wants replying to - not a LINK TO IT - he ignores it …

All of this adds up to someone who debates irresponsibly and disreputable and deceitfully. His purpose is just to amuse himself - but he still cannot understand that I’m not playing his game hence he keeps up his despicable repetitive debate technique saying he ‘giggles’ at what is posted to him.

Did Jesus ever laugh? (I don’t mean ‘was Jesus ever HAPPY!’) - No, because laughing at someone is actually a derogatory behaviour towards the misfortune of another person (Think about why comedy makes you laugh!)

No, laughing is not necessarily derogatory behaviour, Soapy

 

[samtonga43]

I agree that Jesus was ‘Son of man’… It means ‘A PERSON OF HUMANITY’ … As opposed to ‘A Son IN SPIRIT’ which is what is meant by ‘Son of God’ (Doer of the works of God)

This is equivalent to ‘The true man’ has come to serve his fellow man and give his life…, etc.

It mean: ‘The true man’ does not seek comforts in the world.

The Jews falsely believed that a man could not forgive another man a sin made against him. They accused Jesus of claiming to be ‘Almighty God’ because Jesus forgave sins. But they were wrong! Jesus told them that FORGIVING A SIN AGAINST THEM was FULLY WITHIN THEIR POWER!!!
Forgive your fellow man for a sin that man caused against you so that God may forgive a sin you made against God! This means only God can forgive a sin against God. Trinitarians are always erring by claiming it is a proof that Jesus is God since Jesus forgave sin but the forgiveness was not said to be caused by sin against God.

‘This true man’ came eating and drinking….

’Who do you say this man is?’

’This true man’…

All references to ‘Son of man’ refer to ‘This true man’ or ‘Mankind’ in general.

All mankind is a Son of Man (apart from Adam, who WAS the original human Son of God)
——————————————-

• “and among the lampstands was someone like a son of man, dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.” (Rev 1:13)

There stood, among the lamp stand, a human person (not an angel!) - a figure like that of a true man - not one flawed by Sin!

• ““In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.” (Dan 7:13)

In both verses the person is referred to a ONE from a MULTIPLICITY of similars. It doesn’t mean that that person is the ONLY ONE.

Another long post, Soapy! Best be careful; your criticism of others may come back to bite you.

 

[Soapy]

No, laughing is not necessarily derogatory behaviour, Soapy

You do not think it is disrespectful to laugh at someone else’s discomfort or misfortune?

 

[Soapy]

Another long post, Soapy! Best be careful; your criticism of others may come back to bite you.

Not really. My posts are not full of repetitive requests for the same info previously requested. Nor are they full of blocked quotes designed only to fill up space.

And, if you note carefully; the long REPLIES are to 3rdAngel who DEMANDS answers to every part of his enormously long and pointlessly elongated and repetitive post else he claims forever that you haven’t answered him. An attempt to answer him results in long posts as you saw and pointed out!!

 

[3rdAngel]

3rdAngel said: ↑ So that is a no than? You do not want to address the post content of my posts that are in disagreement with you but instead make strawman arguments no one is talking about as a distraction because you cannot address the post content and the scriptures share with you that are in disagreement with you? All of your past questions and post content were answered section by section and proven here in post # 1268 linked; post # 1269 linked; post # 1270 linked and post # 1271 linked for all to see that your making false claims again. My question to you dear friend is do you want to actually try now to respond to the content in these linked posts that prove from the scriptures why your earlier posts are in error or are you going to project, and deflect with false claims and accusations and run away?

Your response here...

So you have no response to anything I said to you…. Same old - same old!

You are deflecting. The post you are quoting from shows you have not responded or addressed any of the linked post content from four linked posts that prove why you are wrong that I am still waiting for you to address.

 

[3rdAngel]

Of course you do not have any idea… it’s easier to deny your failing than to admit it - You’ve shown it throughout your posts in this thread.

No your post made absolutely no sense. You may need to explain yourself a little better.

 

[3rdAngel]

3rdAngel said: ↑ According to the scriptures, Jesus as the son of God was also the son of man and refers to himself as such here...

• Matthew 20:28 just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many.”

• Matthew 8:20 Jesus *said to him, “The foxes have holes and the birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has nowhere to lay His head.”
• Matthew 9:6 But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins”—then He *said to the paralytic, “Get up, pick up your bed and go home.”
• Matthew 11:19 The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, ‘Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax collectors and sinners!’ Yet wisdom is vindicated by her deeds.”

• Matthew 16:13 Now when Jesus came into the district of Caesarea Philippi, He was asking His disciples, “Who do people say that the Son of Man is?”
• Matthew 18:11 For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost.
• Matthew 24:27 For just as the lightning comes from the east and flashes even to the west, so will the coming of the Son of Man be.
• Mark 8:38 For whoever is ashamed of Me and My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, the Son of Man will also be ashamed of him when He comes in the glory of His Father with the holy angels.”

• Luke 18:8 I tell you that He will bring about justice for them quickly. However, when the Son of Man comes, will He find faith on the earth?”
• John 1:51 And He said to him, “Truly, truly, I say to you, you will see the heavens opened and the angels of God ascending and descending on the Son of Man.”
• John 5:27 and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man.
• John 6:53 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves.
• John 12:23 And Jesus answered them, saying, “The hour has come for the Son of Man to be glorified.
• John 13:31 Therefore when he had gone out, Jesus *said, “Now is the Son of Man glorified, and God is glorified in Him;
• Acts 7:56 and he said, “Behold, I see the heavens opened up and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God.”
• Revelation 1:13 and in the middle of the lampstands I saw one like a son of man, clothed in a robe reaching to the feet, and girded across His chest with a golden sash.

You really do not know the scriptures now do you. Receive Gods' correction and be blessed. Son (singular) of mankind does not mean all of mankind plural

Your response here...

I agree that Jesus was ‘Son of man’… It means ‘A PERSON OF HUMANITY’ … As opposed to ‘A Son IN SPIRIT’ which is what is meant by ‘Son of God’ (Doer of the works of God) This is equivalent to ‘The true man’ has come to serve his fellow man and give his life…, etc. It mean: ‘The true man’ does not seek comforts in the world.

No. Each one of the scriptures and their context is to the singular application in the Greek referring to Jesus, as the son of mankind, not plural to mankind. It is in reference to Jesus saying that He (singular not plural to mankind) as the son of mankind. John 1:1-4; 14 shows that Jesus is also the God of creation from the beginning and the creator of heaven and earth as does Genesis 2:1-3; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16-17; Hebrews 1:1-2; Genesis 1:26-27; Isaiah 44:24; Ephesians 3:9. So Jesus was God and was with God the father according to these scriptures and creator of all thing in Heaven and earth therefore as our creator is also our father. Mankind however, sinned and fell away from God (plural) and were under condemnation and death but God so loved our world that he sent us His only begotten son that who ever believes on Him should not perish but have everlasting life. So Jesus is both the son of God meaning the same as God and the son of man because Jesus as God came into our world as the son of man to save all mankind.

The Jews falsely believed that a man could not forgive another man a sin made against him. They accused Jesus of claiming to be ‘Almighty God’ because Jesus forgave sins. But they were wrong! Jesus told them that FORGIVING A SIN AGAINST THEM was FULLY WITHIN THEIR POWER!!! Forgive your fellow man for a sin that man caused against you so that God may forgive a sin you made against God! This means only God can forgive a sin against God. Trinitarians are always erring by claiming it is a proof that Jesus is God since Jesus forgave sin but the forgiveness was not said to be caused by sin against God.

According to the scriptures we are to forgive one another if we are wronged by someone and they ask for forgiveness (e.g. Luke 17:3; Matthew 6:14; Mark 11:25). This of course is different to seeking Gods' forgiveness for our own individual sins. The Jews did not falsely believe that mankind did not have the power to forgive those who sinned against us personally but believed according to the scriptures that man could not forgive someone individual sins which must be confessed to God alone. Only God can forgive us for our own personal sins against him and our fellow man according to the scriptures (see 1 John 2:1; John 1:9; Proverbs 18:13; Luke 11:1-4). You do err not knowing the scriptures.

‘This true man’ came eating and drinking….’Who do you say this man is?’ ’This true man’… All references to ‘Son of man’ refer to ‘This true man’ or ‘Mankind’ in general. All mankind is a Son of Man (apart from Adam, who WAS the original human Son of God)

Your post here makes absolutely no sense. How can the son of (singular) be all mankind plural? I do not think you have thought your argument through very well as it shows why you are in error again.

“and among the lampstands was someone like a son of man, dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.” (Rev 1:13) There stood, among the lamp stand, a human person (not an angel!) - a figure like that of a true man - not one flawed by Sin! ““In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence.” (Dan 7:13). In both verses the person is referred to a ONE from a MULTIPLICITY of similars. It doesn’t mean that that person is the ONLY ONE.

Revelation 1:13 is talking about Jesus. Not sure why you are thinking it was a angel which was something I have never said anywhere - Strawman? In both verses from Revelation 1:13 and Danial 7:13 as posted below says now where in these scriptures that son of man is plural or many as both the Greek and Hebrew is written in singular not plural application.

• Revelation 1:13 And in the midst of the seven candlesticks one like unto the Son of man, clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle.

Note: the scriptures "one"; Greek is singular not plural linked; "like unto the son of man"; Greek is singular not plural linked; "clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle" also Greek is singular not plural linked. Also the context is to one (singular) looking like a man wearing singular cloths. This proves you are in error again as the scriptures here are not talking mankind and plural application but to someone who was in the form of a man singular Jesus.

• Daniel 7:13 I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.

Note: the scriptures "one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven". Once again the Hebrew grammar agrees with the Greek of Revelation 1:13, that is the Hebrew is singular application the context is to an individual singular application not plural linked. The above once again prove that you are in error here and both scriptures are references to someone singular looking like a man - Jesus.

Take Care.

 

[3rdAngel]

3rdAngel said: ↑ No you didn't say that sis. Sorry if that was what you were thinking I was saying. I posted that because most of Christianity teaches "the Lords day" is Sunday despite there being no scripture to support this view. As posted earlier we should believe the words of Jesus and the bible over the teachings and traditions of men that lead us to break the commandments of God against the very warning of Jesus in Matthew 15:3-9. Jesus not me says he is the Lord of the Sabbath day in Matthew 12:8. These are His Words not mine. The Sabbath day therefore according to the scriptures is "the Lords day".

Your response here...

You are conflating two different themes.

There is no conflating anything. The scripture says in Revelation 1:10 that John was in the Spirit in "the Lords day". The Greek word meaning of τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ translated as "the Lords day" means pertaining to the Lord or the Lords ownership of the day from Revelation 1:10. Matthew 12:8 shows that Jesus claims to be the Lord of the Sabbath day.

Jesus saying that ‘The Son of Man’ is Lord even of the Sabbath simply means that ‘The Son of Man’ must not be SLAVES (the antithesis to being ‘Lord’) to the law of the Sabbath.

No. The scripture context is singular application in the Greek referring to Jesus, not plural to mankind. It is in reference to Jesus saying that He (singular not plural to mankind) as the son of mankind is Lord which is κύριος (kýrios | G262) meaning supreme in authority, or controller of the Sabbath day. So both Revelation 1:10 and Matthew 12:8 prove that (1.) Jesus claims ownership of "the Lords day" (κυριακός (kyriakós | G2960) in Revelation 1:10 but that he is the controller, maker and supreme in authority of the Sabbath day (kýrios | G262) meaning supreme in authority). So you are quite wrong here in your understanding of the scriptures as the Greek and scripture contexts are not in agreement with your interpretation of scripture.

And, it is yet to be established exactly WHICH ‘Lord’ is being spoken of: ‘Jesus’ as ‘human Lord - Master in humanity’ or: ‘Almighty God’ as ‘Lord’ who established the day. For sure Abraham was given a vision of the coming Messiah, termed, ‘The day of the Lord’ but this in no way refers to a dedicated 24 hour contiguous period.

Here you are conflating two different themes. Jesus is Lord God and so is the Father. You do not understand what the scriptures teach in regards to the oneness of God plural.

more to come...

 

[Subduction Zone]

No your post made absolutely no sense. You may need to explain yourself a little better.

His post made sense, The fault may lie with you.

 

[3rdAngel]

PLURAL APPLICATION OF GOD

I will be comparing 1 Corinthians 8:6 to the Hebrew to which Paul is referring to in Deuteronomy 6:4. The reason for first quoting Deuteronomy 6:4 is to show where the Greek words θεός (theós|G2316) translated as God and κύριος (kýrios|G2962) translated as Lord come from and their application to "one God" and their duel application in 1 Corinthians 8:6 and it's application to one God with the Greek from Hebrew translation of Lord. Lets start by looking at the scriptures..

• DEUTERONOMY 6:4 4, Hear, O Israel: THE LORD OUR GOD is ONE GOD
• 1 CORINTHIANS 8:6 6, But to us there is but ONE GOD, THE FATHER, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one LORD JESUS CHRIST by whom are all things, and we by him.

WORD MEANING ORIGINS FROM HEBREW TO GREEK TO ENGLISH

1. Lord translated from Greek to English in 1 Corinthians 8:6 comes from the Hebrew word יְהֹוָה (Yᵉhôvâh | YHWH; yeh-ho-vaw' H3068)
2. Lord is in context is referring to God in the Hebrew is אֱלֹהִים (ʼĕlôhîym|Adonai Elohim H430) and this is where the Greek word from Hebrew translates as God θεός (theós|G2316) in 1 Corinthians 8:6
3. One coming from the Hebrew word אֶחָד (ʼechâd | ekh-awd' - H259) translated in the Greek as εἷς (heîs|hice G1520) also having plural application like echad.

So when reading the Hebrew Scriptures it would be vocalized as Adonai, the word for Lord God. Because of that, our English translations use an all-uppercase LORD in place of the name YWHW or Jehovah. The word translated as God in this verse is elohim. This is somewhat of a generic word for God. And it is used also to refer to the gods of the nations as well as the God of Israel. In the Greek Septuagint, the Bible of the early church, YHWH, is translated as kyrois. This is a word that means Lord and is synonymous with the Hebrew Adonai. And elohim is translated as theos, the generic Greek word for God. So in Hebrew, the expression ‘YHWH Elohim’ is pronounced as ‘Adonai Elohim’. In Greek, it is ‘Kyrois Theos’. And in English, it is ‘LORD God’. These are the words being used in the Greek scripture in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

CONTEXT IS IMPORTANT

1 CORINTHIANS 8:1-7 1, Now as touching things offered to IDOLS, we know that we all have knowledge. Knowledge puffs up, but charity edifies. 2, And if any man think that he knows any thing, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know. 3, But if any man love God, the same is known of him. 4, As concerning therefore the EATING OF THOSE THING OFFERED AND SACRIFICED TO IDOLS WE KNOW THAT AN IDOL IS NOTHING IN THE WORLD AND THAT THERE IS NONE OTHER GOD BUT ONE. 5, FOR THOUGH THERE BE THAT ARE CALLED GODS WHETHER IN HEAVEN OR EARTH AS THERE BE GOD'S MANY AND LORDS MANY 6, BUT TO US THERE IS BUT ONE GOD, THE FATHER, OF WHOM ARE ALL THINGS, AND WE IN HIM; AND (parallel)' AND ONE LORD JESUS CHRIST, BY WHOM ARE ALL THINGS, AND WE BY HIM. 7, However, there is not in every man that knowledge: for some with conscience of the idol to this hour eat it as a thing offered to an idol; and their conscience being weak is defiled.

FROM THE SCRIPTURES

NOTE: The context to the Corinthians believers is that of food offered to idols and that idols are nothing but false Gods and Lords that are many. While 1 Corinthians 8:6 is saying BUT TO US... that is Christian there is only one (εἷς (heîs|hice G1520 from the Hebrew ʼechâd | ekh-awd' - H259 also meaning singular or plural unified) God, the father of who are all things and one Lord Jesus Christ who are all things and we by him.

1. 1 Corinthians 8:6 tells us that the father is God creator of all things
2. One God, beside having singular application also has plural application one in unification as used in other Hebrew and Greek scriptures
3. The application of Lord is to God applied to Jesus who is also creator of all things

So what do we see we see the application of one God with singular and plural meaning to God the father as creator of all things and to Jesus as Lord God as creator of all things in parallel application with God the father. Paul is saying that the Father is God (plural) and creator and that Jesus is Lord God (YHWH, Jehovah) the God of the old testament scriptures and also creator!

This further agrees with the creation account of the scriptures here...

ONE GOD OR ONE IN UNIFICATION?

• JOHN 10:30 I AND THE FATHER ARE ONE.

Compare with these scriptures here (there are more but we can use these as examples)...

• DEUTERONOMY 6:4 4, Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is ONE GOD

• GENESIS 2:24 24, Therefore shall a MAN leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his WIFE: and THEY SHALL BE ONE FLESH.

• GENESIS 11:6 And the LORD said, BEHOLD, THE PEOPLE IS ONE, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do.

• GENESIS 34:15 16, Then will we give our daughters to you, and we will take your daughters to us, and we will dwell with you, and WE WILL BECOME ONE PEOPLE.

• EXODUS 12:49 49, ONE LAW shall be to him that is home born, and to the stranger that sojournes among you.

• EXODUS 24:3… all the people answered with ONE VOICE…

• JUDGES 20:8 All the people arose as ONE MAN…

Are in harmony with...

• JOHN 10:30 I AND THE FATHER ARE ONE

• MATTHEW 28:19 9, Go ye therefore, and TEACH ALL NATIONS, BAPTIZING THEM IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY GHOST

• 1 JOHN 5:7 “For there are three that bear witness in heaven: The Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and THESE THREE ARE ONE."

NOTE: the one thing that all these scriptures have in common is that the context and the Hebrew show a plural application and meaning to the English word translated as one (singular). The Hebrew word used here for "one" here is אֶחָד (ʼechâd | ekh-awd' - H259) which is a derivation: a numeral from אָחַד; its meaning is properly, united, i.e. as one; or (as an ordinal) first
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-) ly, each (one), [phrase] eleven, every, few, first, [phrase] highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.

continued...

 

[3rdAngel]

So beside having a meaning of one (singular) like the English definition, unlike English it can also be used in plural application depending on the scripture contexts.

Now plural application to the Hebrew word one has been proven. Let's look at the Genesis account of creation and God's Words as they are written in creation and see how these are also are not supportive of one singular God but God as plural unified application like the examples provided from the scriptures above...

1 CORINTHIANS 6:8 ONE GOD (plural) AT CREATION GOD THE FATHER AND JESUS AS CREATORS?

God reveals himself throughout scripture as one in unification as shown in the scriptures above and also in the creation account and in other scriptures here...

• GENESIS 1:26 26 And God said, LET US MAKE MAN IN OUR IMAGE, AFTER OUR LIKENESS: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

• GENESIS 3:22 “Then the Lord God said, BEHOLD, THE MAN HAS BECOME LIKE ONE OF US, knowing good and evil; and now, he might stretch out his hand, and also take from the tree of life, and eat, and live forever.”

• Genesis 11:7 “COME, LET US GO DOWN AND CONFUSE THEIR LANGUAGE so they will not understand each other

• Isaiah 6:8 “Then I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, “Whom shall I send, and WHO WILL GO FOR US?” Then I said, “Here am I. Send me!”

NOTE: You will note above that "let us, "our image" or "our likeness" or "one of us" or "for us" is first person plural application in the Hebrew words use here. It is not a singular application to God in any references provided from the Torah. So the collective scripture as well as word meaning, context and use here is that when the term one is used it does not always mean singular application but can also mean plural application based on the scripture contexts. The scripture context provided in this post prove that the term "one God" is an application to a plural God that are unified and as "one people" as "one flesh" as highlighted in the scriptures in the previous section while the God of creation is is also plural application to "us or our".

This shows why your interpretation of the scriptures you provided earlier to a singular God is in error and also shows how the scriptures you provided in your last post are harmonized and do not contradict each other. In 1 Corinthians 8:6 Paul ascribed to Jesus the personal name of God (YHWH, Jehovah) that is used in the Old Testament. This is also testified to by Jesus himself when he says to the Jews that before Abraham was I AM (see John 8:58 from Exodus 3:14). The name I AM is a reference to the God of the old testament from the burning bush and a name of the God of Israel.

In Paul's address in 1 Corinthians 8:6 the first is God the Father and the second is the Lord Jesus Christ. But when you look at the Greek, a language he was very familiar with, and the language spoken by the Corinthians, you find something else. The Shema affirms there is one YHWH Elohim (Deuteronomy 6:4). Paul says there is one Theos (the Greek translation of Elohim), the Father. And there is one Kyrois (the Greek translation of Adoni, the word spoken in place of YHWH the God of the old testament) in Jesus Christ.

The LORD God of the Shema becomes God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Not two distinct entities. But together, the LORD God. Over and over in Paul’s writings, he refers to the Lord Jesus Christ. And each time he does, he is affirming the divinity of Jesus. That he is connected with the YHWH of the Old Testament.

There can be little doubt that Paul viewed Jesus, the Son, as closely connected with God, the Father. That they were not two distinct individuals said to be the creators of the heavens and the earth and all mankind but that together, they were the one God unified in creation of heaven and earth as shown in Genesis 1:26 and elsewhere in the old testament and new testament scriptures. This is why Jesus also ways in John 10:30 I AND THE FATHER ARE ONE. Therefore according to the scriptures Jesus and God the Father are one God plural and are Lord God almighty.

I have yet to hear or read of a 24 hour day dedicated to Jesus … and Jesus did not refer to the Sabbath being dedicated to him.., He did not rest on the Sabbath, but rather glorified God, carried out miracles, and did good on all days of the week. Therefore, my conclusion is that ‘The Lord’s Day’ refers to God as ‘Lord’ and ‘Day’ meaning ‘Sabbath’.

Try reading Genesis 2:1-3; John 1:1-4; 14; Colossians 1:16-17; Hebrews 1:1-2; Genesis 1:26-27; Isaiah 44:24; Ephesians 3:9. You do err not knowing scripture. If you disagree please respond to the content of my posts and address the content from the scriptures that are in disagreement with you. If you cannot then why now believe Gods' Words that are in disagreement with your words that are not Gods.

Take Care.

 

[3rdAngel]

His post made sense, The fault may lie with you.

Alright you tell me what part of the post I was referring to when posting to Soapy and explain to me what it meant? If you cannot why make up stuff again and run away? Prove yourself. If you cannot you are only proving my point to everyone again that you make false claims and accusations unsupported by any evidence and then run away when challenged.

 

[3rdAngel]

And, if you note carefully; the long REPLIES are to 3rdAngel who DEMANDS answers to every part of his enormously long and pointlessly elongated and repetitive post else he claims forever that you haven’t answered him. An attempt to answer him results in long posts as you saw and pointed out!!

I am still waiting for you to address all my posts and the content of these posts and the scriptures provided in them that are in disagreement with you. So far you have ignored my posts that prove why your teachings are in error.

 

[IndigoChild5559]

Yes you do not have grounds because you have not been following the discussion. I and others do have grounds and can prove it and have provided linked posts to discussions we have been having. If someone make a false claim and accusation about someone unsupported by any facts or evidence it is bearing false witness and is dishonest.

When you accuse someone of deceit, you are saying they KNOWINGLY are telling untruths. Them hearing your side and still disagreeing with you is not evidence of deceit. You can prove actual deceit for example if they have told two contrary versions of something. But their version simply being contrary to your version is not evidence.

 

[3rdAngel]

When you accuse someone of deceit, you are saying they KNOWINGLY are telling untruths. Them hearing your side and still disagreeing with you is not evidence of deceit. You can prove actual deceit for example if they have told two contrary versions of something. But their version simply being contrary to your version is not evidence.

Once again you have not been following the conversations here. It is the false personal accusations made by some here that are deceitful because they are false claims unsupported by any facts or evidence only said to bear false witness. As posted earlier bearing false witness is deceitful. We are not talking about disagreement in scripture content which I think all people believe what they say regardless of if they are right or wrong and in truth or not in truth.

Take Care.

 

[samtonga43]

You do not think it is disrespectful to laugh at someone else’s discomfort or misfortune?

Of course I do.
?

 

[samtonga43]

Of course you do not have any idea… it’s easier to deny your failing than to admit it - You’ve shown it throughout your posts in this thread.

I don't know what you mean here either Soapy:--

"Well, you need to stop doing that. Jesus condemned repetition of prayers (requests) which was a favourite negative behaviour pattern of the Jews!!"

You're advising 3rdAngel to stop repeating prayers. Am I correct?

 

[IndigoChild5559]

Once again you have not been following the conversations here. It is the false personal accusations made by some here that are deceitful because they are false claims unsupported by any facts or evidence only said to bear false witness. As posted earlier bearing false witness is deceitful. We are not talking about disagreement in scripture content which I think all people believe what they say regardless of if they are right or wrong and in truth or not in truth.

Take Care.

So when you say he is being dishonest, you are only talking about his remarks about you, and not about his remarks on the topic?

 

[Subduction Zone]

Alright you tell me what part of the post I was referring to when posting to Soapy and explain to me what it meant? If you cannot why make up stuff again and run away? Prove yourself. If you cannot you are only proving my point to everyone again that you make false claims and accusations unsupported by any evidence and then run away when challenged.

I am not playing the way back game. This is where he made what you are doing wrong clear:

Well, you need to stop doing that. Jesus condemned repetition of prayers (requests) which was a favourite negative behaviour pattern of the Jews!!

It seems that you did not understand that criticism. Earlier exegesis and eisegesis were brought up. If one is excessive in either one will get a false interpretation of the Bible. You rely far to heavily on excessive exegesis. When one does that the real world refutes your beliefs. And who is to say whose exegesis is more correct? You are not a scholar. Nor it Soapy, or I. I do not play the exegesis game too much because I understand its shortcomings. Do you remember how I asked you if you were treating the Bible as a piece of fanfiction? That is what one is doing when one relies only upon exegesis.

Jesus castigated the Jews in the temple for doing the same thing as you are doing.