We Never Know
No Slack
Actually I do not believe you can.
All I want to see is a list of uncaused events. Is that to much to ask?
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Actually I do not believe you can.
Yes. See the exchange with @shunyadragon , which illustrates the sorts of things I have in mind. Mind you, he is challenging my view, so let's see where this ends up....
I has already accepted that individual properties may be random such as the outcome of individual events may be random, but deterministic processes and systems are not random.
Easy I disagree. The only truely random of the (True Random Number Generator) is the randomness of the selection of each individual number.
I believe this confirms my view. The unpredictable of some elements that are unpredictable does nake them random. What is considered above to be unpredictable needs more explanation. For example it is true that individuale events are unpredictable, but the system or process is deterministic.
Radioactive decay events, and the values of properties measured on individual QM entities photons, electrons and the like).Yes? Yes to what? All I'm asking for is a list of uncaused events.
You seemed to be disagreeing before. So you accept that, for example, in radioactive decay, the overall pattern of decay in a large number of atoms is deterministic but which exact atom decays at what exact time, is random?
That's the point. If you (say) fire photons at a half-silvered mirror, half of them will go through and half will be reflected, but which does which is random. Hence you can generate a genuinely random binary number if you assign 0 and 1 to the two outcomes.
Chaos is different because the system can be described using deterministic mathematics the apparent randomness comes about because of high sensitivity to initial conditions. Tiny, unmeasurable (in the real world) differences can change the outcome drastically.
The difference is that with QM the mathematics can only tell you the probability of the value of any measurable outcome.
The fact that the outcome of individual cause and effect events are apart of my original argument.
Only random as individual events.
No it is not, as referenced.
There is no such thing as QM mathematics.
But there is no cause why, for example, one atom decays at one time and another at another time - there is only a cause for the overall probabilities.
Referenced where? The situations are different because chaotic systems are described directly and deterministically while in quantum mechanics, the wave function develops deterministically but can only tell you the probabilities of observable outcomes, not the outcomes themselves.
That's a fundamental difference between classical physics (including chaotic systems) and quantum physics.
I didn't say there was, but mathematics is the language in which these things are described and they are fundamentally different.
No, the cause of the decay of atoms is well known. Probabilities is not a cause.
https://www.google.com/search?q=Pro....69i57j0l5.10522j0j8&sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8
"Probability is the likelihood or chance of an event occurring. Probability = the number of ways of achieving success. the total number of possible outcomes."
The timing of the outcomes are already accepted as random and probabilities only apply to the over all wave function..
The fundamental differences between Classical Physics is fundamental to the nature and scale and not whether the variability in the outcome of events,which are random. or the variability of the outcome the chain of events or collective events have a random explanation, which they do not.
From: Radioactive decay - Wikipedia
Radioactive decay is a stochastic (i.e. random) process at the level of single atoms. According to quantum theory, it is impossible to predict when a particular atom will decay, regardless of how long the atom has existed. However, for a collection of atoms, the expected decay rate is characterized in terms of measured decay constants or half-lives.
I know what probability means but I've no idea why you think this definition is relevant.
This doesn't make sense, what do you mean by "probabilities only apply to the over all wave function"?
This makes even less sense. In classical physics there are deterministic equations that directly describe how systems' observable properties (position, momentum, energy, and so on) vary over time. In quantum physics, the equations only give us the development of the wave function over time, which can only tell us about the probabilities of the different values of observables.
The definition is relevant, because you are wrong probability is NOT a cause.
Probability does not apply to the random timing single events in the macro nor the plank world of Quantum Mechanics.
.<snip>
I have already explained the basics to you, and you stoically refuse to understand.
Except you don't actually seem to grasp the basics, or if you do, you're have trouble expressing what you mean. I've just given you a reference to how alpha decay works by tunnelling and how that relates to probability and hence to lifetimes.
The fact is that form and time development of the wave function is deterministic but it can only give you probabilities about observables. Tunnelling tells us that the wave function is non-zero outside the potential barrier and therefore that there is a calculable probability (based on the square of the modulus of said wave function) that a given particle could be found outside it - but there is literally no other reason (only the form of a the wave function and hence the probability) why one nucleus decays at a particular point in time.
Probability is not a cause.
Hello! This is my first post on the forums, and I hope it'll be a good one. For those of you who do not know what the Kalam Cosmological Argument (or the KCA for short) is, here's the argument in its entirety used by theists.
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause
2. The universe began to exist
3. Therefore the universe has a cause and that cause is God
Believe it or not, this argument is used quite often. That is surprising because of the following reasons:
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause (certainly true for things IN the universe, however you cannot say what is within something happens the same as something out of that thing, as it is a composition fallacy. For example, take a school of fish. From the perspective of somebody only able to see the school of fish, all fish within the school have a mother. So, the person concludes that the school of fish must have a mother. If you want to say this is an unfair analogy because you can replace the word "mother" with "cause," that is choosing one specific area of the argument and disregarding the other. The point of the argument isn't to give a cause of the school of fish, it is showing that looking to the parts of a group of objects doesn't mean that the group of objects came about the same way as the objects within the group. So while a watch may have a watchmaker, the universe does not have to have a universe maker.)
2. The universe began to exist (true, but look to last part)
3. Therefore the universe has a cause and that cause is God (what? That makes no sense. Jumping from "the universe has a cause" to "that cause is god" is absurd, and certainly does not prove any one religion. In fact, that can be used to prove any religion. Hinduism, Paganism, Buddhism, you name it. And using this argument, my grandma can be God, if she lived long enough.)
This was kind of put together quickly, so it might have some issues and might not make as much sense as it should, but I think it's good enough to actually convey my message.
Yes and do. My point is that the individual decay is random and without apparent cause, according to our models.
I grant you that the models tell us there is a defined probability of the event, which is determined by the isotope in question, but the event itself when it occurs is seemingly triggered by nothing at all, just as the position of each photon dot, in the building up of an interference fringe pattern, is not seemingly caused by anything.
It might suggest it, I agree, but to date no cause has been found, or promisingly suggested, even. People have tried, via the various "Hidden Variable" hypotheses, but none of them has worked out.So "uncaused" events can be predictable over time?
IOW, over X amount of time X number of uncaused events can be predicted to occur?
Then predictability is not an indication of cause?
Hello! This is my first post on the forums, and I hope it'll be a good one. For those of you who do not know what the Kalam Cosmological Argument (or the KCA for short) is, here's the argument in its entirety used by theists.
1. Whatever begins to exist has a cause
2. The universe began to exist
3. Therefore the universe has a cause and that cause is God
Which brings us right back to the question you were asked at the start: what do you think is the cause of an individual decay event at a specific time?
I didn't say that the probabilities were the cause,