Then you must have an interesting take on the words "perfect" and "throughly furnished" since Paul wrote this before the coming of the BoM.
2 Tim 3:[16] All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:[17] That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
Hi Francine,
Just as I can't see how some Christians use Rev 22:18,19 to claim that the canon of scripture is closed, I'm equally stumped on how 2 Tim 3:16 is used in the same regard. I never want to be or sound argumentative in my posts. I enjoy explaining what I believe and I enjoy learning how others think. In that spirit, let's discuss 2 Tim 3:16.
Paul explains here the purposes of scripture:
- teach doctrine
- provide reproof
- provide correction
- provide instruction in righteousness
- All of the above, so that man "may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works".
While Paul explains here the purpose of all scripture, he does not explain which books of scripture, that claim to be scripture, are indeed scripture. He just explains the value of all scripture. The questions of which writings should be considered scripture, or when will scripture be provided, are not addressed in these verses.
You seem to believe that Paul is saying "all of the scripture that you now have constitutes all of the scripture that God will ever provide". Do you believe that is what Paul means? If so, why? I honestly don't see it. Do you accept any writings as scripture, that were written after this epistle of Paul?
I believe Paul is saying "all of the scripture which you received anciently, are receiving now, or will receive in the near or distant future is provided by God for these reasons." Since I consider the B.ofM. to be part of "all scripture", I believe God provided the B.ofM. for the same reasons He provided the Bible, as described by Paul to Timothy.