OK, so the threat of invasion is not, any more, from the north.
Recently, it's still been from the north... just further north:
Distant Early Warning Line - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Reading this thread indicates that the perceived threat is from Washington, the national legislature. That seems outlandish to me and prompts another question.
Is the USA a voluntary union of UNITED States or an enforced political fiction?
I'd say that the American Civil War disspelled the idea that the union is voluntary.
"Independent transportation being vital to job security, we have bought a car for you to use." Now it specifically mentions the use of the car, in the same way the 2nd amendment does. The first clause still does not limit the use of the car solely to work related functions.
But it probably does limit it to transportation functions. I would probably call it a violation of that statement if the person used the car in a way that had nothing to do with transportation (living in it, for example). I would certainly consider it a violation if he used the car in a way that took away its ability to use it for transportation (entering it in a demolition derby, for example).
The right is shows no limitation(as does the use of the car tonight). We are given free reign to own and use guns so that a militia is possible, not solely for the purposes of being in a militia.
What about cases like, say, the Branch Davidians, where the group was arming themselves to fight against the very "well regulated militia" that the Constitution identifies as the purpose of the Second Amendment?
I'm not a lawyer, but I do remember one principle from the one law course I did take: if there's a vague clause in a contract, one of the assumptions used in interpreting it is that it was intended to fulfil some sort of purpose, so any interpretation that makes the clause meaningless is rejected.
It seems to me that your interpretation here renders the entire statement about a "well regulated militia" meaningless. Doesn't it?
Isn't it reasonable to interpret the Constitution in such a way that assumes that its authors and the legislators who approved it had
some purpose for the qualifier about "well regulated militias" on the front of the Second Amendment? The way you've put things here, it doesn't matter... and I don't think it makes a whole lot of sense to decide that a phrase in the highest law of the land doesn't matter.