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The Septuagint and the Hebrew Tanakh

paarsurrey

Veteran Member

The Septuagint and the Hebrew Tanakh


One means the copyists could make or did make mistake/s and these got current with the Judaism people, right, please; thanks to Haaretz for pointing the mistake/error/blunder, please, right?

Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please, right?

Regards

__________________
4:10
"10 Moses said to the Lord, "I beseech You, O Lord. I am not a man of words, neither from yesterday nor from the day before yesterday, nor from the time You have spoken to Your servant, for I am heavy of mouth and heavy of tongue."

" The Appointment of Aaron
4:10 “Please, Lord,” Moses replied, “I have never been eloquent, neither in the past nor since You have spoken to Your servant, for I am slow of speech and tongue.”
 

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Jayhawker Soule

-- untitled --
Premium Member
Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please, right?
You are trying very hard to disparage the Tanakh. It is a petty campaign and, to be quite honest, you're not particularly good at it.

At least try to put forward arguments that are rational. Take, for example, your reference to Exodus 4:10. What does this have to do with whether or not he existed, whether or not he could communicate in Hebrew, or whether or not he was capable of eloquent prose? Absolutely nothing.

Here is an interesting article in STAMMA that could well help you communicate more coherently.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
paarsurrey said:
Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please, right?
You are trying very hard to disparage the Tanakh. It is a petty campaign and, to be quite honest, you're not particularly good at it.

At least try to put forward arguments that are rational. Take, for example, your reference to Exodus 4:10. What does this have to do with whether or not he existed, whether or not he could communicate in Hebrew, or whether or not he was capable of eloquent prose? Absolutely nothing.

Here is an interesting article in STAMMA that could well help you communicate more coherently.
I didn't say that Moses/Musa did not exist and or that Exodus did not happen, so please get corrected on that, right, please?

Right?

Regards
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member

The Septuagint and the Hebrew Tanakh


Thanks to Haaretz for pointing out that the copyists could make or/and did make mistake/s and these got current with the Judaism people, right, please, please, right?

Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please, right?
It is for this that Moses requested G-d to make Aaron as his assistant (Wazir) to help him, and the Ever-Gracious G-d granted Moses his request, right, please.

Regards
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
The Septuagint and the Hebrew Tanakh

Thanks to Haaretz for pointing out that the copyists could make and or did make mistake/s and these got current with the (Judaic people aka) worldly Jews (and or the Zionists) ?

Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please.
It is for this that Moses requested G-d to make Aaron as his assistant (Wazir to share the burden) to help him, and the Ever-Gracious G-d granted Moses his request, right, please?:

20:25-30
G-d say to Moses.
‘Go thou to Pharaoh; he has indeed exceeded all bounds.’
Moses said, ‘My Lord, open out for me my breast,
‘And ease for me my task,
‘And loose the knot of my tongue,
‘That they may understand my speech,
‘And grant me a helper from my family — Holy Quran: Read, Listen and Search

Regards
____________________________
Original Arabic narration/text since Muhammad' time below:-
20:25-30
اِذۡہَبۡ اِلٰی فِرۡعَوۡنَ اِنَّہٗ طَغٰی ﴿٪۲۵
قَالَ رَبِّ اشۡرَحۡ لِیۡ صَدۡرِیۡ ﴿ۙ۲۶
وَیَسِّرۡ لِیۡۤ اَمۡرِیۡ ﴿ۙ۲۷
وَاحۡلُلۡ عُقۡدَۃً مِّنۡ لِّسَانِیۡ ﴿ۙ۲۸
یَفۡقَہُوۡا قَوۡلِیۡ ﴿۪۲۹
وَاجۡعَلۡ لِّیۡ وَزِیۡرًا مِّنۡ اَہۡلِیۡ ﴿ۙ۳۰
 

IndigoChild5559

Loving God and my neighbor as myself.
Thanks to Haaretz for pointing out that the copyists could make and or did make mistake/s and these got current with the (Judaic people aka) worldly Jews (and or the Zionists) ?
I don't know any educated Jews that dispute this. If you examine the Great Isaiah Scroll, it has a few minor changes, but still changes. For example, it sometimes spells out the Name of God, whereas the Masoretic text will say Adonai (lord). Either one or the other was altered.

Moses didn't know much of the Hebrew and was not eloquent in it, so it was obvious he couldn't have authored/wrote the Torah/Hebrew Tanakh, please.
It is for this that Moses requested G-d to make Aaron as his assistant (Wazir to share the burden) to help him, and the Ever-Gracious G-d granted Moses his request, right, please?:
We know now that there are multiple authors of the Torah. I'm sure there had to be a first one to record the laws. I think of that individual as Moses. But there is no way to extricate what Moses might have written from what other authors contributed.

As to Classical Hebrew, it did not become a distinct language until around the 10th century BCE. Scholars date Moses to somewhere between the 13th to 15th centuries BCE. He would have spoken a semitic dialect called Proto-Hebrew, which was closely related to the Canaanite dialects of the area. It is also likely that, if Moses really did come out of Egypt and was the adopted son of Pharaoh's daughter, that he would have also spoken Egyptian.
 
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