Skwim
Veteran Member
Looking into it, the only consequential difference between ancient Hebrew and contemporary Hebrew is in the different alphabets used. And with the change in alphabets the words themselves retained their old meanings. In fact, the number of "letters" in a word typically remained the same and often retained their correspondence in other words. So, I see no reason to suspect a difference in meaning for "cannibal" in ancient Hebrew, and that in modern Hebrew.Well anyone who has read Caesar's Gallic Wars knows that the Gauls were purportedly into human sacrifice on a large scale. They would basically vow sacrifices before a battle and if they won; they would sacrifice their captives to please their patron deity. This practice died down when they learned they could sell captives to the Romans instead in exchange for wine or other valuables.
How do you know the British and Irish weren't influenced by Baal or Phoenicia? I suggest the compelling book America B.C. by Barry Fell
I'm talking about the ancient Hebrew and Phoenician. The modern word "cannibal" is not what is in question. I'm arguing about the origins of the word. Note the similarities with the name Hannibal the famous Punic general.
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