See my post #161.
If that makes you happy, it still makes no difference to misrepresentation of the definition of atheism to suite your personal sensibilities. The OP showed bias, no excuses will change that
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See my post #161.
So, this had me going back to read what was going on here and what was so bad, and I get it. But then, upon reading the post fully, I have to say I am curious about what rebuttal you have for the actual on-topic content of the post - because it left me wondering where it goes from there. Note: I haven't attacked you in any way, nor am I trying to be argumentative, I am sincerely curious as to what a believer/theist might respond to the point made about the claim that theism is more logical, given the comments in the (non-offensive) part of that post (#46).This is not even worthy of comment, but let me just say that it's truly a shame that you have to resort to ad hominem attacks instead of acting like an adult.
In a later post, I'll explain why I have used definitions that more clearly differentiate between "atheism" and "agnosticism" and their definitions. We normally use in English more than one word to differentiate between two or more items that are not exactly the same.
And you presume, of course, you are presumption based, that Im trying to 'impress' or that your opinion means anything, regarding that, etc.I've read posts of yours. Have never been impressed. Just being honest.
I pose the question of the title, and then I'll have to wait for your responses until Saturday as I'm outta town tomorrow. First, to define terms:
Theism: a belief that there is at least one deity.
Agnosticism: not knowing if there's a deity or deities.
Atheism: a belief there are no deities.
Which is logically the weakest and why? I say it's the latter by far.
See yas Saturday, so play nice now.
I have explained how I know, but since you do not look at the evidence the same way I look at it, you cannot understand how I know what I know.Your utter failure to explain how you "know" is a big factor in that.
It's also a big factor in me not giving any weight at all to your claims to know.
I didn't say "superior"-- I said "logical". But I also explained that there are many theists, no doubt, that have a "blind faith", which I defined, so the stereotype you used doesn't fit.So, you believe the theist is superior because it is based on something. Very amusing, thank you
I've already explained why I limited the definition to "atheism" so as to differentiate it from "agnosticism", and this had nothing whatsoever to do with my supposed "sensibilities" or my supposed "bias".If that makes you happy, it still makes no difference to misrepresentation of the definition of atheism to suite your personal sensibilities. The OP showed bias, no excuses will change that
Thanks.So, this had me going back to read what was going on here and what was so bad, and I get it.
Because a belief in a deity or deities may be based on something whereas atheism (using the definition in the OP) is based on nothing.Then, going devil's advocate, "belief in a deity" does come along with having to define at least some attributes of that deity, as far as I am aware, otherwise you're not really committing to much, right?
But how do you know a theists knowledge is supposedly "pretend"?It does seem less logical to have to pretend knowledge of more.
but I tend to think that the joke is on them.
I look at evidence rationally. I don't think I could be persuaded to look at it irrationally, no.I have explained how I know, but since you do not look at the evidence the same way I look at it, you cannot understand how I know what I know.
I've already explained why I limited the definition to "atheism" so as to differentiate it from "agnosticism", and this had nothing whatsoever to do with my supposed "sensibilities" or my supposed "bias".
Anyhow, believe what you want to believe, I guess, but I know what my motive was and I've explained it several times.
Agnosticism and atheism aren't differentiated. A person can be both. If you define them to make them mutually exclusive, you've misdefined them.I've already explained why I limited the definition to "atheism" so as to differentiate it from "agnosticism", and this had nothing whatsoever to do with my supposed "sensibilities" or my supposed "bias".
Anyhow, believe what you want to believe, I guess, but I know what my motive was and I've explained it several times.
Actually there is in science as we differentiate between a "hypothesis", "theory", and "axiom". Not all concepts have the same degree of evidence to support them.There's no such thing as a logically strong or weak position.
Now you are being disgustingly dishonest by putting ulterior motives into my mind that simply are not and were not there, which has been explained to you several times. I no longer am going to deal with your dishonesty.That is not limiting, that is deliberate misrepresentation
You have not explained why you misquoted the definition of atheism.
Your motive was to misrepresent atheism to give yourself a stronger argument. Misrepresentation to back up an argument never works
So, I suppose I have to say that I don't know that any of the knowledge is truly "pretend", however, whether or not the theist can even have 100% fact-based/reality-based foundations for that knowledge is more what I would mean to put forward. To the point that, if it isn't possible for you to know what you are saying you know, then you are, more or less, "pretending" to know.But how do you know a theists knowledge is supposedly "pretend"?
I gotta go but will be back shortly.
It's not necessarily and either/or dichotomy. Sometimes we may witness or experience something that we don't fully comprehend, or only partially comprehend, or maybe even miscomprehend.To the point that, if it isn't possible for you to know what you are saying you know, then you are, more or less, "pretending" to know.
We often don't, and in science we also face this a lot, let me tell ya, as not everything is black & white.But at the end of the day - how does one know those are correct?
You are applying your own rigid definition to the word "unknowable" and assuming that most agnostics irrationally think that way.
Millions of anecdotal claims are not evidence of existence but they are evidence of the possibility. That's one reason why agnostics allow the possible existence that atheists deny. It's the atheist who logically denies that any of those anecdotal claims might be true not the agnostic.
I want to sincerely apologise to metis. I did not mean to cause any harm or the like. I think his reply was humorous and it seemed like he was laughing in the quote so I didn't take it too seriously.
Metis sent a message to me but blocked me so I couldn't respond. At any rate, I did not mean to offend. I genuinely thought what he said was funny.
That is not limiting, that is deliberate misrepresentation
You have not explained why you misquoted the definition of atheism.
Your motive was to misrepresent atheism to give yourself a stronger argument. Misrepresentation to back up an argument never works
Now you are being disgustingly dishonest by putting ulterior motives into my mind that simply are not and were not there, which has been explained to you several times. I no longer am going to deal with your dishonesty.