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Trinity claims that the Jews believed that a Son is equal to his Father

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
I don't understand why with the article not being in English, but if it was in Hebrew and if it was saying the same thing,

Because they don't say the same thing when in Hebrew. The termonology is not the same as what is used in English.

then would that mean that it would have merit to you as a final source of information? And if so, why?

If they used a wide range of sources, for example, Iraqi Jews, Yemenite Jews, North African Jews, Afghanistan Jews, etc. Only after showing the perspectives of the oldest Jewish communities outside of Israel can one conclusively say what was considered valid in the Jewish world.

Okay, so it looks like what you are saying is that Torath Mosheh Judaism would be an unadulterated, genuine form of Judaism where these other so-called versions of Judaism which are mentioned in articles such as these are not really Judaism.

I would word that differently. Torath Mosheh is defined as:

81421_9c7154e8ae4c6aaa49dbe7bfb718dc8c.png


However, the concern that I have with that is that I have seen on other forums where people who claim to be Jewish have said that there are all various types of Judaism.

This is the challenge with using forums as ones reference point. What you do is the following:
  1. Find out what the word "Judaism" even means linquistically in the Hebrew of various generations of Jews.
  2. Find out what types of actions make up said term(s).
  3. Find out what the oldest surviving Jewish communities held by.
  4. Determine if said "type" of Judaism is ancient, authentic, and authoratative.
Also, be aware that Wikipedia is not considered by most be a final source of information.
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
And when he CONQUERED the world he was no longer in the world… but his disciples/Apostles were to remain in it… that is, they were to face adversity and deceit of the wicked one: that wicked one no longer had any power over Jesus because he had shown that the world cannot seduce him… he was ‘no longer in the world!’
Jesus delivered this speech before he was killed. So he was still in this world (not the same as being "of this world"). He was talking about future (afterlife):

"...I am going to the Father and you will no longer see Me..."

"I came from the Father and entered the world. In turn, I will leave the world and go to the Father."

"I will no longer be in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to You."

And before means pre-existence (not greater than Abraham):

"I have glorified You on earth by accomplishing the work You gave Me to do. And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed."

"Father, I want those You have given Me to be with Me where I am, that they may see the glory You gave Me because You loved Me before the foundation of the world."
 
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David Davidovich

Well-Known Member
Because they don't say the same thing when in Hebrew. The termonology is not the same as what is used in English.

If they used a wide range of sources, for example, Iraqi Jews, Yemenite Jews, North African Jews, Afghanistan Jews, etc. Only after showing the perspectives of the oldest Jewish communities outside of Israel can one conclusively say what was considered valid in the Jewish world.

So, what are we talking about here? Are you talking about if the paragraph quote from jewishvirtuallibrary.org was in Hebrew, or are you talking about if the documents that it is referring to were in Hebrew and another ancient languages rather than being in English?

All the Apocrypha and most of the Pseudepigrapha are Jewish works (some contain Christianizing additions). They provide essential evidence of Jewish literature and thought during the period between the end of biblical writing (ca. 400 BCE) and the beginning of substantial rabbinic literature in the latter part of the first century CE. They have aroused much scholarly interest, since they provide information about Judaism at the turn of the era between the Bible and the Mishna (Biblical Law and Oral Law), and help explain how Rabbinic Judaism and Christianity came into being.​

click here: The Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha (jewishvirtuallibrary.org)

Because the Apocrypha and the Pseudepigrapha were originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. Therefore, it looks like what you're actually saying is that you are not familiar with the content of those books in their original languages. And if that is what you're saying, then would that mean that conversely, you would view those writings as having more validity to them if you saw them in their original languages?

Texts and versions

A small portion of this literature is preserved in the original languages: Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. Most of the Hebrew or Aramaic works, however, exist today only in various translations: Greek, Latin, Syriac, Ethiopian, Coptic, Old Slavonic, Armenian, and Romanian. All the works of the Apocrypha are preserved in Greek, because they have for the Greek Church a canonical value. Those books not considered canonical by the early church have often fallen into oblivion, and their Greek text was often lost; many of the ancient Jewish Pseudepigrapha are today preserved only in fragments or quotations in various languages, and sometimes only their titles are known from old lists of books that were rejected by the church.

Of this literature only the Apocrypha (contained in Latin and Greek Bibles) were read in the liturgical services of the church. The Pseudepigrapha, in their various versions, were in most cases nearly forgotten; and manuscripts of most of them were rediscovered only in modern times, a process that continues. The discovery of the Dead Sea Scrolls at Qumrān in the Judaean desert not only furnished new texts and fragments of unknown and already known Pseudepigrapha but also contributed solutions to problems concerning the origin of other Jewish religious writings (including some Old Testament books), the connection between them, and even their composition and redaction from older sources. The new original texts also strengthened interest in the Jewish literature of the intertestamental period because of its importance for the study of both ancient Judaism and early Christianity. As a result of such discoveries, better critical editions of the Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha, as well as new studies of their content, have been published.​

click here: biblical literature - Intertestamental literature | Britannica

David Davidovich said:
Okay, so it looks like what you are saying is that Torath Mosheh Judaism would be an unadulterated, genuine form of Judaism where these other so-called versions of Judaism which are mentioned in articles such as these are not really Judaism.

I would word that differently. Torath Mosheh is defined as:

81421_9c7154e8ae4c6aaa49dbe7bfb718dc8c.png

That sounded like the same thing that I said, but with different wording. Also, I wanted to mention that in this thread, this is the first time that I've ever heard of Torath Mosheh Jews.


David Davidovich said:
However, the concern that I have with that is that I have seen on other forums where people who claim to be Jewish have said that there are all various types of Judaism.

This is the challenge with using forums as ones reference point. What you do is the following:
  1. Find out what the word "Judaism" even means linquistically in the Hebrew of various generations of Jews.
  2. Find out what types of actions make up said term(s).
  3. Find out what the oldest surviving Jewish communities held by.
  4. Determine if said "type" of Judaism is ancient, authentic, and authoratative.
1 & 2. The term Judaism derives from Iudaismus, a Latinized form of the Ancient Greek Ioudaismos (Ἰουδαϊσμός) (from the verb ἰουδαΐζειν, "to side with or imitate the [Judeans]").[33] Its ultimate source was the Hebrew יהודה, Yehudah, "Judah",[34][35] which is also the source of the Hebrew term for Judaism: יַהֲדוּת, Yahadut. The term Ἰουδαϊσμός first appears in the Hellenistic Greek book of 2 Maccabees in the 2nd century BCE. In the context of the age and period it meant "seeking or forming part of a cultural entity"[36] and it resembled its antonym hellenismos, a word that signified a people's submission to Hellenic (Greek) cultural norms. The conflict between iudaismos and hellenismos lay behind the Maccabean revolt and hence the invention of the term iudaismos.[36]

click here: Judaism - Wikipedia

3. The Cochin Jews are considered the oldest, continuously living Jewish community in the world. They began arriving from Judea, 2,500 years ago, on the Malabar Coast of India and settled as traders near the town of Cochin in what is now the southernmost India’s state of Kerala. The first wave probably arrived in 562 BCE following the destruction of the First Temple.

click here: The world’s oldest Jewish community…is in India | IJN | Intermountain Jewish News

4. Religious Beliefs. The Cochin Jews believe in one deity. Their religious observances conform in every way with the Jewish norms established by the halacha (Jewish legal code), and they kept contact with mainstream Judaism through many generations. At the same time, since they were fully integrated into Kerala society, they were influenced by many Hindu practices and beliefs (e.g., the emphasis upon purity of descent, the wedding customs and canopy, and the "asceticism" associated with Passover preparations). Reportedly, the Cochin Jews have never suffered from anti-Semitism at the hands of their Hindu neighbors.

Religious Practitioners. The Cochin Jews never had any rabbis, but several men served as shochetim (ritual slaughterers) and hazanim (cantors) both for their own communities and for another community of Indian Jews, the Bene Israel in Bombay.

Ceremonies. Both the "White" and the "Black" Jews perform their ceremonies separately in their own synagogues and homes. However, the ceremonies are similar and distinctly Cochini, reflecting both local Hindu and Christian influences. Both groups build a manara, or aperion, for the wedding, usually at the groom's house. After a ritual bath the bride receives a tali, an Indian pendant, in imitation of local Nayar practice. The groom and bride dress in traditional wedding dress. The groom enters the synagogue on a white carpet—a custom apparently observed by "Black" and not "White" Jews—and sits near the podium until the bride's procession arrives. The groom himself—and not a rabbi, as in other Jewish communities—actually announces his betrothal and marriage to his bride.

click here: Religion and expressive culture - Cochin Jew (everyculture.com)

Also, be aware that Wikipedia is not considered by most be a final source of information.

I was just taking a que from you because in one of your videos, I saw where you made reference to a Wikipedia article in order to get your point across.
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
So, what are we talking about here? Are you talking about if the paragraph quote from jewishvirtuallibrary.org was in Hebrew,

We are talking about if the Jewish Virtual Library article were in Hebrew. If it were in Hebrew it would not be a direct word to word translation into English. Hebrew articles on these topics are often more expansive because they are discussing topics that were originally dealt with in Hebrew and Aramaic texts.

Because the Apocrypha and the Pseudepigrapha were originally written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek. Therefore, it looks like what you're actually saying is that you are not familiar with the content of those books in their original languages.

No. I have read them in Hebrew. I have also seen the fragements that have survived that are in Hebrew and Aramaic. What I am saying that these texts were never accepted by the vast majority of Jews as being Torath Mosheh. Thus, only the cult like groups and fringe groups that died out historically is where you find fragments of these works.
 

Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
David Davidovich said:
Okay, so it looks like what you are saying is that Torath Mosheh Judaism would be an unadulterated, genuine form of Judaism where these other so-called versions of Judaism which are mentioned in articles such as these are not really Judaism.

No, the wording is not correct. There is no such thing as "Torath Mosheh Judaism." One can't connect the statement that way. Again, for Jews wording is key. The use of "unadulterated, genuine form of Judaism" and "versions of Judaism" are also part of the problem, English. Consider in the following way.
  1. When the Torah was given by Hashem at Mount Sinai the foundation of building an Torah based Israeli society in the land of Israel was given/established.
    • This included the governmental system.
    • The legal system.
    • The social system.
    • The educational system.
    • The ideological/intellectual system.
  2. All of the above is Torath Mosheh because both the written and oral details were given by Hashem to Mosheh ben-Amram and he taught/transmitted to all of the Israelis of that generation from all of the tribes.
  3. The term (יהדות) Yahaduth "Judaism" did not exist then thus the term being inserted into a time it didn't fit historically or theologically.
  4. Thus, anything that does not match the governmental system, legal system, social system, educational system, and ideological/intellectual system that was given at Mount Sinai by Hashem is not Torath Mosheh.
  5. In order for something to be proven to be Torath Mosheh it would have to be proven to be ancient, authentic, and authorative. I.e. you should be able to trace the concept, practice, etc. throughout the generations and find it common in the most ancient Jewish communities.
    • If something does not match the above it is not Torath Mosheh and thus Torath Mosheh reject it.
Now, getting to the term "Judaism" in English this term has only a modern usage and often is used to describe things that are not Torath Mosheh and are not ancient, authentic, nor autoratitive. A good example is the term Judeo-Christian. For Torath Mosheh Jews, this term "Judeo-Christian" really means Christianity and not Torath Mosheh and not Yahaduth.

In all ancient sources where the term (יהדות) "Yahaduth" is found it does not mean what the English term Judaism is used in the western world to mean. Thus, now a days you have Christian Jews who claim to follow "Messianic Judaism" BUT if you go back prior to the 1960's no Christian Jew ever used the term (יהדות) to describe what they were doing. They originally called themselves "Hebrew Christians." At no point in their history did they describe what they were doing as Torath Mosheh.

As an experiment do the following. Take anything that has the term "Judaism" attached to it in English and see if that thing was in practice or accepted among Yemenite Jews, Mizrahi Jews, Maghrebi Jews, Asian Jews, etc. Further, look at the origin of said thing and if you find it only started in particular modern year and had no predecesor in earlier mentioned ancient Jewish communities you will know that said thing is not Torath Mosheh.

At that point, you state, "This is not a matter of it being unadulterated, genuine Torath Mosheh. Said thing is not Torath Mosheh without arguement and those who hold by said thing, on thier own, never claimed it to be Torath Mosheh."
 
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Ehav4Ever

Well-Known Member
3. The Cochin Jews are considered the oldest, continuously living Jewish community in the world. They began arriving from Judea, 2,500 years ago, on the Malabar Coast of India and settled as traders near the town of Cochin in what is now the southernmost India’s state of Kerala. The first wave probably arrived in 562 BCE following the destruction of the First Temple.

click here: The world’s oldest Jewish community…is in India | IJN | Intermountain Jewish News


Jews of Yemen - History - When did Jews Settle in Yemen? - Wysinfo

https://www.haaretz.com/israel-news...sh-world/0000017f-e89b-df2c-a1ff-fedb60410000

upload_2022-5-9_10-13-43.png


Preserving the Iraqi Jewish Archive

Iraqi Jewish Archive

The Jews of Afghanistan - Museum of the Jewish People
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
Jesus delivered this speech before he was killed. So he was still in this world (not the same as being "of this world"). He was talking about future (afterlife):

"...I am going to the Father and you will no longer see Me..."

"I came from the Father and entered the world. In turn, I will leave the world and go to the Father."

"I will no longer be in the world, but they are in the world, and I am coming to You."

And before means pre-existence (not greater than Abraham):

"I have glorified You on earth by accomplishing the work You gave Me to do. And now, Father, glorify Me in Your presence with the glory I had with You before the world existed."

"Father, I want those You have given Me to be with Me where I am, that they may see the glory You gave Me because You loved Me before the foundation of the world."
I have already explained to you that ‘In the world’ means ‘To face adversity’.

Jesus conquered ‘the world’ and therefore no longer faced adversity. The disciples/apostles were still to face adversity therefore they were still ‘in the world’.

Why are you still thinking PHYSICAL WORLD. Jesus was speaking - and always does speak - in the SPIRITUAL… that’s why Nicodemus (and many others) did not understand (like you are doing now) what Jesus said to them:
  • [God] said, “Go and tell this people: “’Be ever hearing, but never understanding; be ever seeing, but never perceiving.’” (Isaiah 6:9)
  • [Jesus] told them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables so that, “’they may be ever seeing but never perceiving, and ever hearing but never understanding; otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!’” (Mark 4:12)
And if you think that Jesus was pre-existent because ‘the Father loved me before the foundation of the world’ then you must also believe that the elite believers were also pre-existent since their names were chosen from from before the foundation of the world….
  • “For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love” (Ephesians 1:4)
Bring in the PLAN of God does not mean that one already existed when God planned it. EVERYONE who makes a good and viable plan for a free-Will system pre-ordains elements of contingencies and tools and systems for disaster recovery and business continuity. If human Beings know to do that then how much more would almighty God (in whose image we are made) would know to do that. The contingencies and disaster recovery is only required if the subjects of the free-Will veer from the purpose and reasoning in the plan.

And just what was the glory you say Jesus had with God before the world existed?

How did that work? Do you know?

Are you trinitarian? If so, how is it Jesus only had glory with the the Father and not with the Spirit of God, also?

And why is Jesus only going to the Father but not the spirit of God…

And how is it that the chosen ones belong to the Father - alone - and gave them to Jesus … if they are all the one same God? How can something belong to one part pf God and not another yet they all three are one being?
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
I have already explained to you that ‘In the world’ means ‘To face adversity’.

Jesus conquered ‘the world’ and therefore no longer faced adversity. The disciples/apostles were still to face adversity therefore they were still ‘in the world’.

Why are you still thinking PHYSICAL WORLD. Jesus was speaking - and always does speak - in the SPIRITUAL… that’s why Nicodemus (and many others) did not understand (like you are doing now) what Jesus said to them:
  • [God] said, “Go and tell this people: “’Be ever hearing, but never understanding; be ever seeing, but never perceiving.’” (Isaiah 6:9)
  • [Jesus] told them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables so that, “’they may be ever seeing but never perceiving, and ever hearing but never understanding; otherwise they might turn and be forgiven!’” (Mark 4:12)
And if you think that Jesus was pre-existent because ‘the Father loved me before the foundation of the world’ then you must also believe that the elite believers were also pre-existent since their names were chosen from from before the foundation of the world….
  • “For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love” (Ephesians 1:4)
Bring in the PLAN of God does not mean that one already existed when God planned it. EVERYONE who makes a good and viable plan for a free-Will system pre-ordains elements of contingencies and tools and systems for disaster recovery and business continuity. If human Beings know to do that then how much more would almighty God (in whose image we are made) would know to do that. The contingencies and disaster recovery is only required if the subjects of the free-Will veer from the purpose and reasoning in the plan.

And just what was the glory you say Jesus had with God before the world existed?

How did that work? Do you know?

Are you trinitarian? If so, how is it Jesus only had glory with the the Father and not with the Spirit of God, also?

And why is Jesus only going to the Father but not the spirit of God…

And how is it that the chosen ones belong to the Father - alone - and gave them to Jesus … if they are all the one same God? How can something belong to one part pf God and not another yet they all three are one being?
I have already explained (many times) that I am not trinitarian. I just assert that a certain view (not my view) is presented in the Gospel of John and Paul's letters. This view is called "high Christology'.

He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (Colossians 1:15)​

For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority. (Colossians 2:9-10)​

Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16)​

Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus: Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death- even death on a cross! (Philippians 2:5-8 )​
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
I have already explained (many times) that I am not trinitarian. I just assert that a certain view (not my view) is presented in the Gospel of John and Paul's letters. This view is called "high Christology'.

He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (Colossians 1:15)​

For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority. (Colossians 2:9-10)​

Beyond all question, the mystery of godliness is great: He appeared in a body, was vindicated by the Spirit, was seen by angels, was preached among the nations, was believed on in the world, was taken up in glory. (1 Timothy 3:16)​

Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus: Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death- even death on a cross! (Philippians 2:5-8 )​
I’m not at all sure what you are saying. All I see is you quoting verses out of context and dragging a trinitarian ideology with it.

Im sorry for you that you cannot see that none of what you say in those verse matches each other. And if they don’t match then that shows there are high discrepancies in the specific verses you link together.

Being in the nature of God does not make a man, God. This is pagan belief like how the Egyptian pharaohs though of themselves as sons of their Gods.

Phil 2 is just one of those so ridiculously misinterpreted sets of verses that only someone who desires to uphold a trinitarian viewpoint could see it in that mistaken mindset. You may claim you are not trinitarian but what you express in your posts here IS TRINITARIAN support.

Jesus is not ‘firstborn of all creation’. Trinitarians say this, too…. Yet that is an impossible ideology since Trinitarians will go to the gallows claiming that Jesus wasn’t born!!! The problem is that they at one moment need to say that Jesus is the first of God’s creations because that’s what the verse APPEARS to say… but, of course, they declare Jesus to be almighty and never-born GOD!! The two ideas do not sit with each other… in fact BOTH are incorrect!!

a ‘Firstborn’ is scripture spiritualness is not about a chronological order of birth. It means ‘MOST BELOVED’ of someone (normally, the Father). We see this in John where it says that no one knows the Father but the son - and that the son is closest in the bosom of the Father. The most loved of all mankind.

When you realise this then you will see that ‘firstborn’ over all creation means ‘The most beloved of all that God created’.

This is reflected in the verse stating that Jesus is the very image of God….. And you well understand that an IMAGE is NOT the thing it images! An image REFLECTS the source - Jesus REFLECTS the way God is. Hence, Jesus says, ‘If you see me then you also see the Father’.

Read… Learn… Understand… Profess…

Jesus is the image of God … reflects the Father… the Father is God and Jesus reflects God: is the image of God.

But more, God says of Jesus: ‘You are my Son in whom I am well pleased!’. Jesus isn’t God since God would not need to say that Jesus (if he were God) pleases Him (God). Moreover, God also says of Jesus: ‘You are my Son, this day I have BECOME your Father’.

There it is again: ‘God is the Father’. And the Father ‘ADOPTS’ one from humanity as his closest in love (‘firstborn’).

Don’t understand? What words are spoken when a man adopts a son?

As he signs the legal papers does he not express joy towards the son and say….. ‘You are now MY Son - and I am now YOUR Father!’

Honestly, if you are not trinitarian, then I find it difficult to understand what you are claiming!

Try believing this…
  • Acts 10:37-38
  • John 8:40
  • John 10:36
I want you to look up the verses and see the context behind each one. Factually, Jesus is DISCLAIMED or is EMPHATIC that he is not God but is EMPOWERED BY GOD… This is what is meant by the verses you presented which state that Jesus is FULL of the [Spirit of the] Deity that is the Jewish God: Because Jesus so pleased the Father, The Father FILLED Jesus with all His holy Spirit… and you know this to be so from the anointing of Jesus at the river Jordan. THIS IS when Jesus was filled with the spirit of the deity God of the Jews - which is why he is the IMAGE OF GOD… ONLY AN IMAGE, mind you!

Evidence: When Joseph was given ALL THE POWER OF PHAROAH to rule in Egypt over the famine… was Joseph, PHAROAH, in all manner?
- Could Joseph sleep with pharaoh’s wife?
- Could Joseph sit on Pharoah’s throne?
- Could Joseph make a decree deposing THE Pharoah?
Answer to all… NO!

Joseph could only ACTS AS PHAROAH in that anything he did would be AS THOUGH Pharoah did it himself. Joseph sat on a throne next to Pharoah and acted as Pharoah UNTIL the famine was over - whereupon Joseph HANDED BACK all the power and authority Pharoah has ‘loaned’ to him!!

Listen… Learn… Understand… Profess…
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
Phil 2 is just one of those so ridiculously misinterpreted sets of verses that only someone who desires to uphold a trinitarian viewpoint could see it in that mistaken mindset.
Verses (Phil 2) speak for themselves. What is your interpretation?

Jesus is not ‘firstborn of all creation’. Trinitarians say this, too…. Yet that is an impossible ideology since Trinitarians will go to the gallows claiming that Jesus wasn’t born!!!
No. Trinitarians don't clam he wasn't born. Part of the Creed is namely "born of virgin Mary".

Son/Word as preexisting (co-)Creator of all things is himself unborn. Only in human form (as Jesus) was he born. That's why Jesus is a visible image of the invisible God.

Yes, image/firstborn has more meanings. But from the context you can see why is he called so (see bold text):

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created..."

If someone created all things, he is God (or at least very close to God) and pre-existing before all creation. Yes or no?
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
Verses (Phil 2) speak for themselves. What is your interpretation?


No. Trinitarians don't clam he wasn't born. Part of the Creed is namely "born of virgin Mary".

Son/Word as preexisting (co-)Creator of all things is himself unborn. Only in human form (as Jesus) was he born. That's why Jesus is a visible image of the invisible God.

Yes, image/firstborn has more meanings. But from the context you can see why is he called so (see bold text):

"He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by him all things were created..."

If someone created all things, he is God (or at least very close to God) and pre-existing before all creation. Yes or no?
It’s pretty obvious you have no idea what you are debating. Your comment about ‘at least very close to God’ gives you away.

Tell me, what does the term, ‘[The] Father’, mean to you in terms of scriptures?
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
It’s pretty obvious you have no idea what you are debating. Your comment about ‘at least very close to God’ gives you away.
It's obvious you have no idea how to answer a simple question. When you do, maybe we can go on...
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
It's obvious you have no idea how to answer a simple question. When you do, maybe we can go on...
Oh, you asked me a question?

Ah yes. Ok, I have no problem answering … in fact the very question I asked you IS THE ANSWER…!

‘FATHER’ means:
  • ‘He who creates’
  • ‘He who brings into being’
  • ‘He who gives life to …’
So, yes, the Father created all things … the Father is God who created all things.

But you say that it was Jesus ….

So are you saying that Jesus is the Father?
 

PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
Oh, you asked me a question?

Ah yes. Ok, I have no problem answering … in fact the very question I asked you IS THE ANSWER…!

‘FATHER’ means:
  • ‘He who creates’
  • ‘He who brings into being’
  • ‘He who gives life to …’
So, yes, the Father created all things … the Father is God who created all things.

But you say that it was Jesus ….

So are you saying that Jesus is the Father?
You haven't answered my question.
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
You haven't answered my question.
What was the question?

Oh, you mean this:
  • “If someone created all things, he is God (or at least very close to God) and pre-existing before all creation. Yes or no?”
I answered you saying that the creator is God. That ‘Father’ means ‘Creator’ and ‘Giver of life’ and ‘Bringer into being’. All these definitions say ‘Yes’ the creator is God (Almighty in power and authority).

But to ask if God, the Father, must have been pre-existent before He created all things is non sequitur - it does not make sense at all and smacks of desperation or ignorance.

And as for ‘or [someone] close to God’… ‘A creator close to God’????

Since the definition of ‘Creator’ is ‘Father’ that would mean there was ‘BIG’ God and ‘lesser’ God… ‘BIG’ Father and ‘lesser’ father.
 
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PearlSeeker

Well-Known Member
That ‘Father’ means ‘Creator’ and ‘Giver of life’ and ‘Bringer into being’. All these definitions say ‘Yes’ the creator is God (Almighty in power and authority).
It is said about Christ that "by him all things were created." (Colossians 1:15-16) So Christ is God according to your definition?
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
It is said about Christ that "by him all things were created." (Colossians 1:15-16) So Christ is God according to your definition?
Well, you should use common sense and see that the verse has been corrupted. In fact, it DOES NOT SAY that Christ Jesus created all things. It says ‘He’….

The verse is deliberately vague so that unwary readers are seduced by the dark side into believing that the person of Christ should be substituted for the ‘He’ in that context.

You will also see that different translators cannot agree as to the proper wording for verse 15. Some (and this is what the Greek says also) say:
  • ‘And IN him all things were created…’
  • ‘For THROUGH him all things were created…’
  • ‘For BY him all things were created…’
‘Father’ means ‘Creator’: ‘He that brings into being’; ‘He that gives life to …’.

So if YOU are insisting that Jesus is God then YOUR Jesus must also be ‘Father’. I do not say Jesus is God: I say that the verse is a corruption and you have fallen for that corruption. Your logic is skewed and you purposely decide you like the deception.
The Greek says ‘ἐν’ (Strongs:1722) which means ‘IN’.

So where is the sense? Considering that these varying translations are done by SCHOLARS in Greek and Aramaic languages, it is amazing that the verse makes no sense… or is that the purpose?

Later in the verse it says that all things were created ‘For him’… which implies that SOMEONE ELSE did the creation:
  • ‘My son was crazy about trains so I build a toy train track FOR HIM!’
  • ‘God created the world and E very thing in it FOR HIM’
And, indeed, what do we see is going to happen at the end of time? Jesus the Christ will INHERIT the WORLD AND EVERYTHING IN IT… He will be its KING ruling over CREATION!

Why? Because, He, Christ, is the most beloved (‘firstborn’) of all of the creations of God.

  1. God is spirit and is king and ruler over the spirit world.
  2. God creates a physical world and fills it with all manner of things to enjoy and cyclically sustain it (fauna and flora)
  3. God creates man to RULE the creation
  4. Got appoints A RULER from among mankind to be RULER over all - a man from among men who display the very image of God completely… it was created FOR HIM - for that anointed one…
    1. ‘the one whom the Father sanctified (set aside as his very own [Son] and sent into the world’ (John 10:36)
    2. “All things have been committed to me by my Father. ” (Matt 11:27)
    3. God says of the one: “To the one who is victorious and does my will to the end, I will give authority over the nations that one ‘will rule them with an iron scepter and will dash them to pieces like pottery’ —just as I have received authority from my Father.” (Rev 2:26-27)
God is Spirit…. Ruler over all spirit and flesh (All things)
Jesus is Man… Ruler over all flesh (Creation)
 
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David Davidovich

Well-Known Member
We are talking about if the Jewish Virtual Library article were in Hebrew. If it were in Hebrew it would not be a direct word to word translation into English. Hebrew articles on these topics are often more expansive because they are discussing topics that were originally dealt with in Hebrew and Aramaic texts.

:confused::confused::confused: But all it said was:

All the Apocrypha and most of the Pseudepigrapha are Jewish works (some contain Christianizing additions). They provide essential evidence of Jewish literature and thought during the period between the end of biblical writing (ca. 400 BCE) and the beginning of substantial rabbinic literature in the latter part of the first century CE. They have aroused much scholarly interest, since they provide information about Judaism at the turn of the era between the Bible and the Mishna (Biblical Law and Oral Law), and help explain how Rabbinic Judaism and Christianity came into being.​

Therefore, it's hard for me to see that that would say something too much different if it were written in Hebrew. :confused::confused::confused:

No. I have read them in Hebrew. I have also seen the fragements that have survived that are in Hebrew and Aramaic. What I am saying that these texts were never accepted by the vast majority of Jews as being Torath Mosheh. Thus, only the cult like groups and fringe groups that died out historically is where you find fragments of these works.

So then, that settles it. Because essentially, what I was trying to say (at least) was that some ancient religion that was associated with or which originated from the Jewish faith, believed in some sort of second power in heaven. Therefore, for me, the OP has been answered in that regards.
 
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