linwood
Well-Known Member
Your own words make it more and more obvious that my second question cannot be answered in the affirmative.
Please show that these standards arent based in some way on inherent Christian or Judaic bias or the Christian/Judaic scriptures themselves.
It should come as no surprise to any of us the Christianity would seek to preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
The blue above is yours and it comes as no surprise to me, in fact I`ve been saying it all along.
You were the one arguing against bias remember?
This is an obvious bias that shows no text that ever denies the resurrection and ascension of Jesus will be given fair review. Your standards are biased and therefore not a part of scientific method.
You are not going to be able to defend that the texts cannot be studied scientifically.
I dont know why Id want to defend that position considering its not a position I have ever held.
I didnt say the texts cannot be studied scientifically, in fact I have read dozens of different analysis on NT scripture from a scientific standpoint using scientific methods.
In my own humble ways Ive reviewed it scientifically myself. The church fathers havent however because of the inherent bias you yourself point out in the previous quote.
No fair falsifiable review can be made while seeking to
preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
You may be able to continue to insist that there is a bias, and I cannot think of a way to convince you otherwise, except to show that the questions are pretty simple.
You could start by ceasing to define and point this bias out yourself we therefore have but our faith in Christ and eating and drinking His body and blood satisfies and any other revelation is bound to be from a differing source and contradictory to the message that we have preserved.
It should come as no surprise to any of us the Christianity would seek to preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
Some truths are not verifiable, but are convincing because they fit into a larger theology.
The standard of accepting it as revelation is the standard for accepting the writings into the canon: it had to be apostolic and used in the churches.
The revelation constructs a systematic Jewish and Christian theology, so much of the verification is "inherently Christian," but it makes sense.
Remember my initial examples?
1: How has Christian/Judaic review used their standards to reject the "divinity" of the Koran to be "uninspired" yet used those same standards to find the NT and OT to be "divine".
2: Show how those same standards have been used to review the Canonical Gospels comparatively
If the standards for verification of revelation are rooted in Christian theology then those standards do not hold up to the requirements of scientific review..
They arent fair standards.
Using your standards from a Muslim perspective the Koran is divinely
inspired.
Hell, so is the Egyptian Book of the Dead.
Horus lives!!
For example, a rule in textual criticism states that late writings cannot be accepted.
Then why are the last 12 verses of Mark in our modern Bibles canonized?
They do not appear in the Codec Sinaticus, the earliest known writing of the NT.
Why are the later gospels canonized considering they are obviously taken
in large parts from Mark ?
The Koran appeared much later than the OT or NT text, and does not have a textual tradition which preceeds it, yet it contradicts an earlier text which addresses the same topics.
This is that Christian bias again and not concerned by the literary rule you cite.
It is not affected by the literary rule because its origins are within a different culture and subject to individual review.
Direct comparison of the two books (NT/Koran) should be supported on content and verification of that content. Not which came first.
However my critique of Marks last 12 verses still stands because it directly relates to edited copying of the most important content regarding Christianity itself.
The resurrection.
The only real standard I am getting out of all of this is ..
"That which does not disagree with the concept of a divine Jesus"
That is a bias, a clear undeniable bias.
Please show that these standards arent based in some way on inherent Christian or Judaic bias or the Christian/Judaic scriptures themselves.
It should come as no surprise to any of us the Christianity would seek to preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
The blue above is yours and it comes as no surprise to me, in fact I`ve been saying it all along.
You were the one arguing against bias remember?
This is an obvious bias that shows no text that ever denies the resurrection and ascension of Jesus will be given fair review. Your standards are biased and therefore not a part of scientific method.
You are not going to be able to defend that the texts cannot be studied scientifically.
I dont know why Id want to defend that position considering its not a position I have ever held.
I didnt say the texts cannot be studied scientifically, in fact I have read dozens of different analysis on NT scripture from a scientific standpoint using scientific methods.
In my own humble ways Ive reviewed it scientifically myself. The church fathers havent however because of the inherent bias you yourself point out in the previous quote.
No fair falsifiable review can be made while seeking to
preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
You may be able to continue to insist that there is a bias, and I cannot think of a way to convince you otherwise, except to show that the questions are pretty simple.
You could start by ceasing to define and point this bias out yourself we therefore have but our faith in Christ and eating and drinking His body and blood satisfies and any other revelation is bound to be from a differing source and contradictory to the message that we have preserved.
It should come as no surprise to any of us the Christianity would seek to preserve its original testimony from competing prophets, etc who say something about Jesus which was not given by the apostles and has not been used in the church.
Some truths are not verifiable, but are convincing because they fit into a larger theology.
The standard of accepting it as revelation is the standard for accepting the writings into the canon: it had to be apostolic and used in the churches.
The revelation constructs a systematic Jewish and Christian theology, so much of the verification is "inherently Christian," but it makes sense.
Remember my initial examples?
1: How has Christian/Judaic review used their standards to reject the "divinity" of the Koran to be "uninspired" yet used those same standards to find the NT and OT to be "divine".
2: Show how those same standards have been used to review the Canonical Gospels comparatively
If the standards for verification of revelation are rooted in Christian theology then those standards do not hold up to the requirements of scientific review..
They arent fair standards.
Using your standards from a Muslim perspective the Koran is divinely
inspired.
Hell, so is the Egyptian Book of the Dead.
Horus lives!!
For example, a rule in textual criticism states that late writings cannot be accepted.
Then why are the last 12 verses of Mark in our modern Bibles canonized?
They do not appear in the Codec Sinaticus, the earliest known writing of the NT.
Why are the later gospels canonized considering they are obviously taken
in large parts from Mark ?
The Koran appeared much later than the OT or NT text, and does not have a textual tradition which preceeds it, yet it contradicts an earlier text which addresses the same topics.
This is that Christian bias again and not concerned by the literary rule you cite.
It is not affected by the literary rule because its origins are within a different culture and subject to individual review.
Direct comparison of the two books (NT/Koran) should be supported on content and verification of that content. Not which came first.
However my critique of Marks last 12 verses still stands because it directly relates to edited copying of the most important content regarding Christianity itself.
The resurrection.
The only real standard I am getting out of all of this is ..
"That which does not disagree with the concept of a divine Jesus"
That is a bias, a clear undeniable bias.