Matthew 5
17: "Think not that I have come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill"
33: "Ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shall not foreswear thyself, but shall perform unto the Lord thy oaths:
34: But I say unto you, Swear not at all: neither by heaven: for it is Gods throne
38: Ye have heard that it hath been said, an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth
39: But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on the right cheek, turn to him the other also".
Just a couple of examples, quite different from the original laws, not merely reinterpreting" them in their original meaning, but outright refutation/change
Jesus was not refuting the Law but explaining the wrong perceptions. Of course it's "reinterpreting" them, and it's not really changing them. If he did change them, he'd be contradicting himself.
To this day, Jews interpret "Eye for an eye" much like how Jesus was espousing, not as literal and restrictive as they thought.
Notice how Jesus says "I have not come to destroy the Law but to fulfill it".
Many misinterpret "fulfill" to mean "Do away with", yet have no problem with how Paul says for believers to "fulfill the Law of Christ". Does that mean to do away with the Law of Christ according to Paul?
Of course not. Thus, the idea that Jesus "Fulfilled" the Law in the sense of abolishing it (Which he specifically says he did not come to do) or "replace" it or "do away with it", is completely bunk.
As for not swearing, that's not a violation of the Law or refutation whatsoever. That's advice on how to not break it.
I don't see where turning the other cheek has anything to do with refuting the Law.
As you can see, the problem is in the interpretation, to say that Jesus actually commanded to violate the Law would render him not the Messiah.
Why would any Jew think he fulfilled Messianic requirements if he taught to broke the Law?
Had Jesus taught to actually break the Law, the Pharisees would have had no problem bringing it up as an excuse to kill him before Pontius Pilate at his trial. But they could not,
because they recognized that he was not teaching any lawlessness or to break it. Thus they had to trump up charges on him of claiming to be the King of Israel. You'd think they would accuse of him of actually teaching to break the Law at his trial before Pilate.
Besides, according to this logic, Peter and James did
NOT GET THE MEMO EVEN BY ACTS 21.
I have oft repeated (And it unsurprisingly gets oft ignored) that Jesus said that anyone who breaks and teaches to break the Least of the commandments shall be called the least in the Kingdom. (Whether they will be in the kingdom and called among the least as in the lowest of the heavenly hierarchy, or called the least among those in the kingdom like the angels while not necessarily being in the Kingdom itself is not clear).
1 John says that the Love of God is obedience to the commandments. He also says anyone who claims to know Jesus but refuses to obey his commands (which involve Torah obedience) are "liars".
Thus, those who break and teach to break the Law, according to 1 John and Jesus are "liars", "doers of lawlessness", "The least", and shall be rejected from the Kingdom altogether.
So you can say that Jesus contradicted himself, broke Jewish Law and taught to break Jewish Law, and that it's extreme to say otherwise, but I'll take that extreme label and go with what the text says.