Hi
@Dogknox20,
@Soapy, and readers.
I am back from traveling and immediately noticed some significant problems with the data in some of the posts.
OFFERING FAKE "BIBLE QUOTES" AND PARAPHRASES AND COMMENTARY IN THE PLACE OF ACTUAL BIBLICAL TEXT
I've noticed the tendency for posters to offer paraphrases and fake text and commentary that appears like it is actual biblical text in the place of authentic biblical text. The problem with corrupting the biblical text is that unsuspecting readers may not notice the difference and assume the poster is offering actual biblical text to support a position when in fact, the authentic and actual biblical text may support an entirely different view.
For example
Dogknox20 offered several inaccurate texts for Greek John 1:18 and, I suppose, assumed readers would notice all but one are inaccurate paraphrases and are NOT an authentic translation of Greek John 1:18.
Dogknox20 offered :
"1 John 18: No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
CSB
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.
CJB
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God; but the only and unique Son, who is identical with God and is at the Father’s side — he has made him known.
CEV
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is truly God and is closest to the Father, has shown us what God is like.
DLNT
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God; the only-born God, the One being in the bosom of the Father— that One expounded Him.
ERV
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The only Son is the one who has shown us what God is like. He is himself God and is very close to the Father.
ESVUK
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
GNT
1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is the same as God and is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
etc
etc (post #1353)
I think a poster of such non-biblical texts has an obligation to make readers aware when presenting text as a “biblical text” when in fact, it is not a quotation of biblical text.
Of the above offerings,
only the ERV version, can be construed as a translation of the Greek.
NONE of the others follow the base text and are NOT authentic translations of biblical text. They are overt paraphrases and commentary offering dogma, but they are not a translation of the actual text.
Even the poster “Soapy” who is not known to be burdened with much education on language and text noticed these texts were not authentic.
Soapy said : “Any linguists around in this forum to show that these extracts show a load of nonsense!” (post #1358)
(Though to be fair, he's offered paraphrase as authentic text as well)
I and other greek readers on the forum can tell you that Soapy is correct regarding the majority of these quotes. They are not authentic biblical translations.
The actual Greek source text of John 1:18 is :
“Θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε μονογενης θεος ο ων εις τον κολπον νου πατρος εκεινος εξηγησατο.”
This is the version in NA-28 and in the GN4 as well.
This text as I have typed it has a “B” rating in the GN4 apparatus which means THIS text “is almost certain”.
In any case the are
NO greek variants in existence which read according to the version Dogknox20 offered as “biblical quotes”.
The actual texts says that
"no one has ever seen God (the) only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, (that one) has declared him"
I noticed again in post #1361 that Dogknox20 offered what he seems to want to appear to be a “biblical quote” as follows : “
“John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.” (Dogknox20, in post #1361)
While the authentic Greek text reads “
No one has ever seen God…”, there is
NO Greek source text that says
“but the one and only son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father” does not appear in and cannot be accurately translated from any source Greek text in existence.
It seems to be a dogmatic commentary inserted into an English paraphrase.
Readers should know and understand that when such texts are presented as authentic “biblical quotes”, they are being given bogus texts and not biblical texts.
WHY DID THE EARLY EDITORS OF BIBLICAL TEXT CHANGE THE TEXT TO "THE ONLY BEGOTTEN SON WHO IS IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER" INSTEAD OF LEAVING THE ORIGINAL TEXT "THE ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD WHO IS IN THE BOSOM OF THE FATHER" ?
While there may be multiple theories as to why and when this text was changed, the motive seems to be a discomfort with the doctrine of "a begotten God"
in addition to God the Father who is "an unbegotten God".
The text does not equate the Father to the son, but if anything, creates a description of two Gods, one who is begotten and one who is unbegotten.
I have thought that once the 3=1 trinitarian doctrine arose and became popular, the text became less palatable and this is the motive as to why the text was changed.
If any other posters have other theories as to the reason the text was changed, I would certainly like to hear any other theories.
Clear
φυφιτωτζτζω
Have a good night.
