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Watchtower: Jesus is not "a god"!

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST ONE OF TWO

Hi @Dogknox20


1) Regarding the Justification for Dogknox20 posting incorrect and inauthentic text of John 1:18 as though it was authentic scripture

Dogknox20 said : “I post scripture.. I have never claimed to be a scripture scholar; I rely on the experts!” (post #1495)


No, you are NOT posting “scripture”.
There is no Greek source text of the bible that says : 1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him." (Dogknox, in post #1407).
Of THOUSANDS of Greek papyri and codices, NOT ONE says this.

IF ANY READER ON THE FORUM CAN FIND A GREEK SOURCE TEXT THAT ACTUALLY READS ACCORDING TO DOGKNOX20s QUOTE, TELL US WHICH OF THE THOUSANDS OF CODICES READS THIS WAY - ANY SOURCE TEXT WILL DO.


You are posting a paraphrased commentary masquerading as scripture.


There are readers who notice this dishonest tactic.


Also, you are not "relying on experts" since there are expert translators who render this text correctly but you didn't use them.
You seem to be choosing between texts based on textual bias, not based on which translators are more “expert”.


The problem with your offering readers a false text is that This is much worse than you complain the Jehovahs Witnesses are doing.


1)You are offering readers scriptural commentary as though it was authentic scripture.
2)While you complain the grammatically correct rendering adds a single letter in the Jehovahs Witness translation, your paraphrase adds more than 50 letters that do not exist in the source text.



The questions you were asked still remain unanswered :
1) How do you justify offering readers a falsely rendered, inauthentic commentary as scripture while complaining that the Jehovahs Witnesses offer a perfectly correct rendering of John 1:1c?
2) How does the fact that you are offering fake biblical text prove a grammatically correct sentence incorrect?


If you claim ignorance of scripture, then this disqualifies your judgment regarding what is and what is not authentic scripture

If you claim you are ignorant of what constitutes authentic scripture and what does not, then I will accept this. However, IF this is you are admitting that you cannot distinguish authentic from false scriptures in what YOU are offering readers, then you have no right to complain that the Jehovahs Witness translation of John 1:1c is incorrect.




2) Regarding who originally engaged in "finger pointing" and who is simply responding

Dogknox20 said : “You point fingers saying; look at the Catholics.. “ (post #1495)


My response was actually to YOUR inaccurate and misleading finger pointing at the Jehovahs Witnesses for a grammatically correct translation and your misrepresentation and mischaracterization of their practices of not receiving blood transfusions.

IF you are going to point fingers, then you need to make sure you are not guilty of far, far worse offenses than those you point fingers at.


For examples

1) You tried to point out an error in a grammatically correct translation by offering inauthentic and bogus text as scripture.

Your first finger pointing at the Jehovahs Witnesses was the silly and inaccurate assumption that they “added an ‘A’” to the source text when the Greek actually does have an “a” grammatically while at the same time YOU offered a much, much, much more inauthentic and inaccurate paraphrasing of John 1:18.

I simply wondered how you justified this by saying :

However, YOUR offering of John 1:18 is unauthentic and a false rendering of the source Greek.
Your offering doesn’t merely add an “a”, but it adds entire false phrases of multiple words to the Greek that are not there in the source Greek. This is much worse than your complaint against others.

How do you justify offering readers a falsely rendered, inauthentic commentary as scripture while complaining that the Jehovahs Witnesses offer a perfectly correct rendering of John 1:1c?
How does the fact that you are offering fake biblical text prove a grammatically correct sentence incorrect?






2) You tried to grossly exagerate the effect of refusing blood transfusions in Jehovahs Witness Children by mischaracterizing and lying about their journal articles regarding blood transfusions.

I simply asked how you justified this by asking :


Why is the murder of thousands of innocents who were simply guilty of not being catholic or unwilling to act in conflict with their own conscience before God, more justifiable than an incredibly small number of individuals who die because they did not receive a blood transfusion?
What is your answer?


Does your mind and heart work such that if you claim others offer a different but correct translation, that this justifies the Catholic organization murdering thousands of innocents?

How does this justification work in your mind?

The same question can be said of the Catholic doctrine in it’s policy of forcing thousands into slavery. How do you justify slavery?

The same question can be asked regarding the Catholic doctrine of the persecution of Jews.
How does one justify the taking of Children from their Jewish parents by force to force the children to be or at least act like they believe in Catholicism?

The same question can be asked of the Catholic doctrine of Thievery.
How does one justify taking the property of thousands of others in order to enrich their organization and themselves in the name of Jesus?

The question can be asked regarding your claim that all of these evils are and were committed by “The Church of Christ” (when, in fact, Jesus would have repudiated such acts)?

How does your mind and heart work that it thinks that all these historical horrors are morally superior to adding an “a” to a sentence in a grammatically correct form?



The deep irony of this situation stems (partly) from the hypocrisy and the complaint of inaccuracy of another, group, while you are guilty of much, much worse.

While you complain that you cannot find any of 60 (sixty) interpreters who added the “a”, NONE of the THOUSANDS of Greek source texts adds the 55 letters you offered readers.

While you complain you cannot find a single English version (from 60) that has the “a”, you also cannot find a single Greek source text (from thousands that exist) that grammatically, lacks the “a”.


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO

3) THE CHALLENGE TO ANY READER ON THE FORUM TO FIND SUPPORT FOR YOUR CLAIM


If you remember, I even asked readers (ANY reader on this forum) to find data to support your claim, so far, none have stepped forward with any data to support it. I asked readers :
If any reader on the forum can find a single Greek codex of John 1:1c that grammatically, lacks the “a”, is anyone able to point it out?

Anyone?

Even a single codex from THOUSANDS that exist will do.





Dogknox, I do not understand, How are you able, in your mind, to justify complaining about another person offering grammatically correct sentence while you offer a completely inauthentic and erroneous and grammatically incorrect text and claim it is “scripture” when it is, obviously, NOT scripture.

I do not understand how you justify lying about the Jehovahs Witnesses and the numbers of children who have died from lack of blood transfusion and yet justify your own Churchs’ murder of thousands and thousands of innocents, the enslavement of populations, the oppression and the stealing from entire populations as a policy and doctrine.

It seems so blatantly hypocritical to me.

However, such actions do not merely reflect on a single person or on a single Christian movement. Instead, engaging in such actions often tends to affect other christianities in the eyes of individuals who are investigating Christianity for truth and for a lifestyle.

How do you think it affects the credibility of other Christianities when Christians either “lie for Jesus”, or are blatantly and obviously hypocritical in doing the very thing they complain others should be condemned for?

Can the complaint that “there is no ‘A’ “ in a text that you, yourself cannot read, actually justify doing damage to the Christian cause by lying and hypocrisy?


Clear
φυσεφυσιειω
 
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Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
The Spirit is in them and they are in the Spirit because the Spirit of God,,,,,,,,,,,which is the same as the Spirit of Christ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,is everywhere. How could they not be in the Spirit?
I and the Father are one. This word one is neuter, meaning one thing. I and the Father are one thing,,,,,,,,,,,,,,not one in agreement.
The Spirit dwells in a believer,,,,,,,,,,,,the Spirit is alive.
The Spirit knows the mind of God,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,.,the Spirit knows things.
The Spirit speaks to us.
You are mistaken.
Where does scriptures say that the spirit knows the mind of God?

Brian2, the spirit OF GOD speaks to believers… OF GOD…

Brian2, what is the purpose of the word, ‘Of’ in the sentence, ‘The spirit of God’?

Tell me, is the ‘Shoe of the horse’ a Horse?

Is the ‘Eye of the tiger’ a Tiger?

Is the ‘Ball of the foot’ a foot?

Is the ‘wheel of a car’ a Car?

Is the ‘Spirit of a man’ a Man?

What is another way to write, “God’s Holy Spirit”?

What is another way to write, “The spirit belonging to God, which is holy!”?

I’m awaiting your squirming response - too painful to admit that language is not your strong suit. In fact, it is not even as good as a ‘D’ grade if you believe that:
  • ‘The heat of the fire’ is the fire!’
  • ‘The hair of the dog’ is the dog!
that…:
  • ‘The Spirit of God’ is the God that it is the spirit of… the spirit of the God it belongs to, the spirit is the property of itself!!!
Wow, Brian2! Where did you go to school?
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @Soapy


1) REGARDING CHRISTIAN PRINCIPLES CONCERNING HOW WE ARE TO TREAT ONE ANOTHER


Soapy said : "You are an imposter."

Could be.
My position is that there is no need to be mean and unkind and simply engage in ad hominem attacks on one another when discussing differences in religious opinions.

I see no reason to believe the Christian position supports meanness and insults and irrational emotional responses. Readers will have to decide if this is an authentic Christian position or an imposter of a Christian position



Soapy said : "In fact, it seems like it is you who cannot take criticism…
My position is that there is no need to be mean and unkind and simply engage in ad hominem attacks on one another when discussing differences in religious opinions.
If you want to criticize this position, you are certainly welcome to.



Soapy said : "It’s as if you fear to be criticised so you deflect from putting your opinion … hiding it under ‘it’s got to be Historical data’ or I don’t believe it…
My position is that there is no need to be mean and unkind and simply engage in ad hominem attacks on one another when discussing differences in religious opinions.
I think this is consistent with the Christian position.
You do not have to provide historical data to argue this position is wrong, but irrational or illogical ideas or ad hominem attacks will not do to argue this position is incorrect.




2) REGARDING THE THEORY THAT INHABITANTS WHO LIVE IN HEAVEN WILL NOT NEED TO BE HONEST AND KIND AND PATIENT ETC.

Clear said : "If the early Christians were correct when they proclaimed that the goal of the creative work of God was to ultimately have a rational, living creature who was prepared to be a citizen of heaven and live in harmony and joy and civility with others, then individuals whose spirits continue to be mean and uncivil cannot be allowed into heaven with those who have learned Christian principles of kindness and patience and civility else the mean and uncivil spirits would ruin the joy and harmony which was to characterize heaven.”
Soapy replied : “I see that you set yourself up as judge and jury as to who does if does not get to go to heaven…. “
Clear replied : "I am merely pointing out the logic that IF heaven is to be a place inhabited by individuals who are kind and loving and unified in a life of joy and harmony, THEN it cannot be inhabited by individuals who are mean and spiteful and oppressive and uncivil to each other."
soapy replied : “HEAVEN is for the ELECT… the elect will certainly not be anyone like you describe so what’s your point?”
Clear explained :
“If heaven is a place of social joy and harmony and unity, then it will be inhabited by individuals who live principles upon which social joy is to be had, and principles by which harmony is to be maintained and if it is unified, then individuals who live there will be selfish, or oppress others, will not be liars and murderers and sociopaths. (POST #1487)
Soapy replied : “I answered the ‘Heaven is did the elect’ because that was a point in question that you got sensationally wrong!”

I think it is irrational to think individuals in heaven can be selfish, can oppress others, can be liars and murderers and sociopaths and heaven remain a place of eternal joy and harmony.
You are certainly welcome to support your theory that individuals in heaven do not need to have social attributes that support harmony and joy and unity if you truly think that is logical and rational.


Clear
φυσεφυσιειω
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
THE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE INHABITANTS OF A HEAVEN THAT IS ETERNALLY JOYFUL, RIGHTEOUS, AND HARMONIOUS
I claim that if Heaven is a place of eternal joy and harmony then individuals who inhabit that place cannot not remain evil and oppress others, and steal and murder and lie and do evil deeds in heaven.
Those who go to actually inhabit heaven will be those who can live those social principles upon which harmony and happiness and joy is created and maintained.


1) Soapy asked : "Where in scriptures do you get the idea of who goes to Heaven?
While the judgment as to who is placed in heaven is up to God, I believe that the authentic Judeo-Christian concept of Heaven is a place of eternal social joy and happiness and harmony where God lives and righteous calm and order will prevail.

For example, the Author of 2 Peter 3:13 explains this “ Nevertheless we, according to the promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness." 2 Pet 3:13.

There are multiple historical descriptions that confirm the early Christian concept that the heaven to which individuals go and live eternally will be a place of righteousness and not evil, a place of calm and not chaos, a place of harmony and not enmity.



2) Soapy said : "Give me a verse in which it is not claimed that the elect are the ones who will inhabit Heaven?

Why would I do that? I believe it is the elect who WILL inhabit heaven.

My claim is that the elect who inhabit heaven must obey social rules and cannot remain evil and oppress and lie and steal and do evil in heaven otherwise heaven cannot remain a place of eternal joy and happiness and harmony. .




3) Soapy asked : "Who do you say are the ELECT of God?

Give me the verse where you are using the word you think is “elect” and I can comment on it.
However, WHO the elect are will not change the fact that all the elect who live in a heaven that is characterized by joy and harmony must live social rules that create and sustain joy and harmony.


The elect who inherit a life in heaven cannot remain evil and oppressors and rapists and murderers and liars in heaven else that would destroy the righteousness and harmony and joy of heaven.


Clear
φυσεφυσιφυω
 
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2ndpillar

Well-Known Member
Gentile Christians have been joined with the Jewish Christians as God's people. (John 10:16)
The Jews under the old covenant have been exiled because of their deeds and they are not under the New Covenant even if they are still loved because of Abraham etc and God will keep the covenant with them that they are under, and God still wants them in the new covenant. The Gentiles have what legitimately the Jews should also have, but rejected their Messiah (Ps 89:39) and stuck with the old covenant with it's commands and statutes and killed their Messiah and God was angry,,,,,,,,,,,,,,as the rest of Ps 89 tells us,,,,,,,,,,,,but for how long, not much longer it seems.
Deut 32:21
‘They have made Me jealous with what is not God;
They have provoked Me to anger with their idols.
So I will make them jealous with those who are not a people;
I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation,

And yes they will be taken out of the nations and they will mourn when they see the one they have pierced. (Zech 12:10) and be given a spirit of supplication.
But as Jesus said, not one stroke or letter of the law will fail till heaven and earth pass away.
This is happening with the Jews now because they are under the Law of Moses and so must keep it to the letter.
Other parts of the Law,,,,,,,,,,,which includes the whole of the Old Testament, is the New Covenant in the Spirit and we end up fulfilling the requirements of the law through love and not through commands and statutes,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,the law is in our heart but it is not all the commands and statutes which are in our heart it is love given to us by the Spirit.
The Redeemer came to Zion to those who repented and they received the Spirit (Isa 59:20,21) and the law/word of God went forth from Zion to the world and many have come to the Lord the God of Jacob and He is teaching us His ways as promised. (Isa 2:3)

The "other sheep", would not be a reference to the Gentiles, in which Yeshua specifically denied his disciples from going too (Matthew 10:5), but they were to go to the "lost sheep", of the house of Israel. According to the book of Mormon, the refugees from the Babylon destruction made their way to the Americas, and, if true, although the refugees from Jerusalem were probably mostly of the tribe of Judah, any very early travelers to the Americas, have lost their connection to Judasim, and therefore would be considered "lost". It is Israel, the lost tribes, which along with Judah, who will be the ones brought to the land that "drips with sweet wine", and has the "hill will flow with milk" (Joel 3:18), and the Gentiles, after receiving judgment (Joel 3:2), will be sold into bondage (Joel 3:8). This is with respect to the "day of the Lord" (Joel 2:31), which remains behind the door. As for your Deut 32:21 quote, that is explained in Hosea 3, whereas the son of man, in the form of Hosea, will purchase an adulterous wife, the "Christian" church, "the flock doomed for destruction" (Zechariah 11:7), for the equivalence of 30 pieces of silver (Hosea 3:2), for "many days" until Israel will "return and seek the Lord their God, and David their king" (Hosea 3:5). As for Psalms 89, that is with respect to "My law", and transgressors will be visited with the "rod" (Psalm 89:31), just as the nations/Gentiles, will be ruled by a rod of iron (Revelation 19:15), and if the Gentiles do not obey, they will receive no rain, at which point their land will turn to as iron (Zechariah 14:18). It is the "house of Israel" (Ezekiel 36:22), which is given the new heart and new spirit (Ezekiel 36:26), not the nations/Gentiles. The Gentiles are only there for "many days" (Hosea 3:3), until Israel returns (Hosea 3:5).
 

Dogknox20

Well-Known Member
POST ONE OF TWO

Hi @Dogknox20


1) Regarding the Justification for Dogknox20 posting incorrect and inauthentic text of John 1:18 as though it was authentic scripture

Dogknox20 said : “I post scripture.. I have never claimed to be a scripture scholar; I rely on the experts!” (post #1495)

No, you are NOT posting “scripture”.
There is no Greek source text of the bible that says : 1 John 18 No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him." (Dogknox, in post #1407).
Of THOUSANDS of Greek papyri and codices, NOT ONE says this.

IF ANY READER ON THE FORUM CAN FIND A GREEK SOURCE TEXT THAT ACTUALLY READS ACCORDING TO DOGKNOX20s QUOTE, TELL US WHICH OF THE THOUSANDS OF CODICES READS THIS WAY - ANY SOURCE TEXT WILL DO.


You are posting a paraphrased commentary masquerading as scripture.


There are readers who notice this dishonest tactic.

Also, you are not "relying on experts" since there are expert translators who render this text correctly but you didn't use them.
You seem to be choosing between texts based on textual bias, not based on which translators are more “expert”.

The problem with your offering readers a false text is that This is much worse than you complain the Jehovahs Witnesses are doing.


1)You are offering readers scriptural commentary as though it was authentic scripture.
2)While you complain the grammatically correct rendering adds a single letter in the Jehovahs Witness translation, your paraphrase adds more than 50 letters that do not exist in the source text.


The questions you were asked still remain unanswered :
1) How do you justify offering readers a falsely rendered, inauthentic commentary as scripture while complaining that the Jehovahs Witnesses offer a perfectly correct rendering of John 1:1c?
2) How does the fact that you are offering fake biblical text prove a grammatically correct sentence incorrect?


If you claim ignorance of scripture, then this disqualifies your judgment regarding what is and what is not authentic scripture

If you claim you are ignorant of what constitutes authentic scripture and what does not, then I will accept this. However, IF this is you are admitting that you cannot distinguish authentic from false scriptures in what YOU are offering readers, then you have no right to complain that the Jehovahs Witness translation of John 1:1c is incorrect.

POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
.
I post scriptures John 1:18 tells us "Jesus is God!" I leave the interpretations to the EXPERTS!

John 1:18
AMP
No one has seen God [His essence, His divine nature] at any time; the [One and] only begotten God [that is, the unique Son] who is in the intimate presence of the Father, He has explained Him [and interpreted and revealed the awesome wonder of the Father].
AMPC
No man has ever seen God at any time; the only unique Son, or the only begotten God, Who is in the bosom [in the intimate presence] of the Father, He has declared Him [He has revealed Him and brought Him out where He can be seen; He has interpreted Him and He has made Him known].
CSB
No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.
CJB
No one has ever seen God; but the only and unique Son, who is identical with God and is at the Father’s side — he has made him known.
CEV
No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is truly God and is closest to the Father, has shown us what God is like.
ERV
No one has ever seen God. The only Son is the one who has shown us what God is like. He is himself God and is very close to the Father.
EXB
No one has ever seen God [C God the Father, who is pure spirit; 4:24]. But ·God the only Son [God the one and only; the only Son who is himself God; T God the only begotten] is ·very close to [by the side of; close to the heart of; T in the bosom of] the Father, and he has ·shown us what God is like [made him known].
GNT
No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is the same as God and is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
ISV
No one has ever seen God. The uniquely existing God, who is close to the Father’s side, has revealed him.
PHILLIPS
So the word of God became a human being and lived among us. We saw his splendour (the splendour as of a father’s only son), full of grace and truth. And it was about him that John stood up and testified, exclaiming: “Here is the one I was speaking about when I said that although he would come after me he would always be in front of me; for he existed before I was born!” Indeed, every one of us has shared in his riches—there is a grace in our lives because of his grace. For while the Law was given by Moses, love and truth came through Jesus Christ. It is true that no one has ever seen God at any time. Yet the divine and only Son, who lives in the closest intimacy with the Father, has made him known.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Hi @Dogknox20 :



Dogknox20 claimed : "I post scriptures John 1:18 tells us "Jesus is God!" I leave the interpretations to the EXPERTS!"

Of course you are not posting scripture.

For example, you posted :
CSB No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.

The actual source Greek of John 1:18 says no such thing (and neither you, nor any other forum member can find even a single Greek source text that reads according to such “quotes”.)

You are posting biased paraphrasing and commentary of scripture.

For example, the AMP is not a bible, but instead, it is a paraphrase and commentary of the bible which “experts” (e.g. Köstenberger, Croteau, and Stowell) point out is “guilty of "illegitimate totality transfer".

You have not really mined for experts, but you have mined for textual bias.

If you actually don’t know what the source scripture says then you have no right to claim that you are offering readers legitimate and authentic scripture.




Dogknox, I do not understand, How are you able, in your mind, to justify complaining about another person offering grammatically correct sentence while you offer a completely inauthentic and erroneous and grammatically incorrect text and claim it is “scripture” when it is, obviously, NOT scripture.

I do not understand how you justify lying about the Jehovahs Witnesses and the numbers of children who have died from lack of blood transfusion and yet justify your own Churchs’ murder of thousands and thousands of innocents, the enslavement of populations, the oppression and the stealing from entire populations as a policy and doctrine.

It seems so blatantly hypocritical to me.

However, such actions do not merely reflect on a single person or on a single Christian movement. Instead, engaging in such actions often tends to affect other christianities in the eyes of individuals who are investigating Christianity for truth and for a lifestyle.

How do you think it affects the credibility of other Christianities when Christians either “lie for Jesus”, or are blatantly and obviously hypocritical in doing the very thing they complain others should be condemned for?

Can the complaint that “there is no ‘A’ “ in a text that you, yourself cannot read, actually justify doing damage to the Christian cause by lying and hypocrisy?



Clear
φυσεσεεισιω
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
THE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE INHABITANTS OF A HEAVEN THAT IS ETERNALLY JOYFUL, RIGHTEOUS, AND HARMONIOUS
I claim that if Heaven is a place of eternal joy and harmony then individuals who inhabit that place cannot not remain evil and oppress others, and steal and murder and lie and do evil deeds in heaven.
Those who go to actually inhabit heaven will be those who can live those social principles upon which harmony and happiness and joy is created and maintained.


1) Soapy asked : "Where in scriptures do you get the idea of who goes to Heaven?
While the judgment as to who is placed in heaven is up to God, I believe that the authentic Judeo-Christian concept of Heaven is a place of eternal social joy and happiness and harmony where God lives and righteous calm and order will prevail.

For example, the Author of 2 Peter 3:13 explains this “ Nevertheless we, according to the promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness." 2 Pet 3:13.

There are multiple historical descriptions that confirm the early Christian concept that the heaven to which individuals go and live eternally will be a place of righteousness and not evil, a place of calm and not chaos, a place of harmony and not enmity.



2) Soapy said : "Give me a verse in which it is not claimed that the elect are the ones who will inhabit Heaven?

Why would I do that? I believe it is the elect who WILL inhabit heaven.

My claim is that the elect who inhabit heaven must obey social rules and cannot remain evil and oppress and lie and steal and do evil in heaven otherwise heaven cannot remain a place of eternal joy and happiness and harmony. .




3) Soapy asked : "Who do you say are the ELECT of God?

Give me the verse where you are using the word you think is “elect” and I can comment on it.
However, WHO the elect are will not change the fact that all the elect who live in a heaven that is characterized by joy and harmony must live social rules that create and sustain joy and harmony.


The elect who inherit a life in heaven cannot remain evil and oppressors and rapists and murderers and liars in heaven else that would destroy the righteousness and harmony and joy of heaven.


Clear
φυσεφυσιφυω
Aha… you have no idea what you are talking about…. That is why your response is disingenuous.

You are now accepting the class of persons who go to Heaven, the Elect of God, now you realise you cannot get away with your idea that all persons go to Heaven.

I says that the Elect WILL BE righteous and made sinless, holy, in the sight of God (not by the sight of man) but you denied my claim… but now you try to claim you didn’t deny what I said…. Too bad!!! You think I am simple… no! I see what you are doing and see that you are an imposter!

And yes, righteous anger is valid anger. Are you going to say that almighty God cannot be angry:
  • “They have moved Me to anger by their foolish idols.” (Deut 32:21)
Jesus was outraged that the money changers were using the temple in Jerusalem to carry out illegal transactions and stealing from the poor and naive. What was his reaction? Who condemned him… was it Almighty God, the Father?!

And your answers are as I thought… nothing reflective of the supposed intelligence that you care to present in your posts… an imposter indeed!
 

TiggerII

Active Member
.
I post scriptures John 1:18 tells us "Jesus is God!" I leave the interpretations to the EXPERTS!

John 1:18
AMP
No one has seen God [His essence, His divine nature] at any time; the [One and] only begotten God [that is, the unique Son] who is in the intimate presence of the Father, He has explained Him [and interpreted and revealed the awesome wonder of the Father].
AMPC
No man has ever seen God at any time; the only unique Son, or the only begotten God, Who is in the bosom [in the intimate presence] of the Father, He has declared Him [He has revealed Him and brought Him out where He can be seen; He has interpreted Him and He has made Him known].
CSB
No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.
CJB
No one has ever seen God; but the only and unique Son, who is identical with God and is at the Father’s side — he has made him known.
CEV
No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is truly God and is closest to the Father, has shown us what God is like.
ERV
No one has ever seen God. The only Son is the one who has shown us what God is like. He is himself God and is very close to the Father.
EXB
No one has ever seen God [C God the Father, who is pure spirit; 4:24]. But ·God the only Son [God the one and only; the only Son who is himself God; T God the only begotten] is ·very close to [by the side of; close to the heart of; T in the bosom of] the Father, and he has ·shown us what God is like [made him known].
GNT
No one has ever seen God. The only Son, who is the same as God and is at the Father's side, he has made him known.
ISV
No one has ever seen God. The uniquely existing God, who is close to the Father’s side, has revealed him.
PHILLIPS
So the word of God became a human being and lived among us. We saw his splendour (the splendour as of a father’s only son), full of grace and truth. And it was about him that John stood up and testified, exclaiming: “Here is the one I was speaking about when I said that although he would come after me he would always be in front of me; for he existed before I was born!” Indeed, every one of us has shared in his riches—there is a grace in our lives because of his grace. For while the Law was given by Moses, love and truth came through Jesus Christ. It is true that no one has ever seen God at any time. Yet the divine and only Son, who lives in the closest intimacy with the Father, has made him known.

John 1:18 does not tell us that Jesus is God.

Justin Martyr
(c. 100-165 A.D.)
Justin, whom the trinitarian The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church (p. 770) called “the most outstanding of the ‘Apologists,’” wrote:
"God alone is unbegotten and incorruptible, and therefore He is God, but all other things after him are created and corruptible {Justin has just concurred that the world was begotten by God} .... take your stand on one Unbegotten, and say this is the Cause of all." - Ante-Nicene Fathers (ANF) 1:197 (‘Dialogue’).

But,

"Jesus Christ is the only proper Son who has been begotten by God, being His Word and first-begotten" - ANF 1:170 (‘Apology’).

"And thus do we also, since our persuasion by the Word, stand aloof from them (i.e., the demons), and follow the only unbegotten God through His Son" - ANF 1:167 (‘Apology’).

Nevertheless, in Justin’s picture, as later in Tertullian’s, the generation of the Logos takes place only with a view to the world’s creation. The Son, therefore, is not co-eternal with God; Moreover, he exists to provide a mediator between God and the cosmos in creation and revelation, as the language of John 1:3 and 1:18, not to mention 1 Corinthians 8:6, seemed to suggest. Thus, the Logos theology appeared to introduce a ‘second God’ {deuteros theos ‘a second god’ was the well-known term used by Philo and many of the second century Christian writers - see the LOGOS study} inconsistently with the principle of monotheism; and further, it suggested that the Logos represented a secondary grade or kind of divinity. It ‘subordinated’ the Son to the Father. - p. 84, A History of the Christian Church, Walker (trinitarian), Scribner’s, 1985 printing.
........................................................................................
Theophilus
(c. 115-181 A.D.)
"ATTRIBUTES OF GOD. ... He is unbegotten; and He is unchangeable,.... And He is called .... Father, because he is before all [other] things... the Highest, because of His being above all; and Almighty" - ANF 2:90.

Theophilus is describing God - and pointing out that only God is unbegotten in every sense of the word. He has also pointed out that the Son IS begotten!

The United Bible Societies' comments about the anarthrous (without a definite article) use of theos at Jn 1:18 not only recognize it as the oldest form found in the ancient manuscripts, but adds: "There is no reason why the article ['the'] should have been deleted." - p. 198.

In other words, if a later copyist were to make a change (say, theos instead of kurios), it would not have been to remove the definite article but instead to add it! This is because John (as well as all the other Gospel writers) always used the non-prepositional nominative form of "God" (theos) with a definite article (ho, "the") when it referred to the only true God (ho theos) ! - (see DEF study end note #5.)

All emphasis above was added by me.
 
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Dogknox20

Well-Known Member
Hi @Dogknox20 :



Dogknox20 claimed : "I post scriptures John 1:18 tells us "Jesus is God!" I leave the interpretations to the EXPERTS!"

Of course you are not posting scripture.

For example, you posted :
CSB No one has ever seen God. The one and only Son, who is himself God and is at the Father’s side—he has revealed him.

The actual source Greek of John 1:18 says no such thing (and neither you, nor any other forum member can find even a single Greek source text that reads according to such “quotes”.)

You are posting biased paraphrasing and commentary of scripture.

For example, the AMP is not a bible, but instead, it is a paraphrase and commentary of the bible which “experts” (e.g. Köstenberger, Croteau, and Stowell) point out is “guilty of "illegitimate totality transfer".

You have not really mined for experts, but you have mined for textual bias.

If you actually don’t know what the source scripture says then you have no right to claim that you are offering readers legitimate and authentic scripture.

Clear
φυσεσεεισιω

The scripture scholars tell us Jesus is God!
Christians HAVE ALWAYS taught Jesus is God!
Christians have Always worshiped Jesus because Worship is only for God!
MOUNCE
No one has ever seen God. The only Son, himself God, the one who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known.
NCV
No one has ever seen God. But God the only Son is very close to the Father, and he has shown us what God is like.
NET
No one has ever seen God. The only one, himself God, who is in closest fellowship with the Father, has made God known.
NIRV
No one has ever seen God. But the One and Only is God and is at the Father’s side. The one at the Father’s side has shown us what God is like.
NIV
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
NIVUK
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in the closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
NLT
No one has ever seen God. But the unique One, who is himself God, is near to the Father’s heart. He has revealed God to us.
TLV
No one has ever seen God; but the one and only God, in the Father’s embrace, has made Him known.
 

Dogknox20

Well-Known Member
John 1:18 does not tell us that Jesus is God.

Justin Martyr
(c. 100-165 A.D.)
Justin, whom the trinitarian The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church (p. 770) called “the most outstanding of the ‘Apologists,’” wrote:
"God alone is unbegotten and incorruptible, and therefore He is God, but all other things after him are created and corruptible {Justin has just concurred that the world was begotten by God} .... take your stand on one Unbegotten, and say this is the Cause of all." - Ante-Nicene Fathers (ANF) 1:197 (‘Dialogue’).

But,

"Jesus Christ is the only proper Son who has been begotten by God, being His Word and first-begotten" - ANF 1:170 (‘Apology’).

"And thus do we also, since our persuasion by the Word, stand aloof from them (i.e., the demons), and follow the only unbegotten God through His Son" - ANF 1:167 (‘Apology’).

Nevertheless, in Justin’s picture, as later in Tertullian’s, the generation of the Logos takes place only with a view to the world’s creation. The Son, therefore, is not co-eternal with God; Moreover, he exists to provide a mediator between God and the cosmos in creation and revelation, as the language of John 1:3 and 1:18, not to mention 1 Corinthians 8:6, seemed to suggest. Thus, the Logos theology appeared to introduce a ‘second God’ {deuteros theos ‘a second god’ was the well-known term used by Philo and many of the second century Christian writers - see the LOGOS study} inconsistently with the principle of monotheism; and further, it suggested that the Logos represented a secondary grade or kind of divinity. It ‘subordinated’ the Son to the Father. - p. 84, A History of the Christian Church, Walker (trinitarian), Scribner’s, 1985 printing.
........................................................................................
Theophilus
(c. 115-181 A.D.)
"ATTRIBUTES OF GOD. ... He is unbegotten; and He is unchangeable,.... And He is called .... Father, because he is before all [other] things... the Highest, because of His being above all; and Almighty" - ANF 2:90.

Theophilus is describing God - and pointing out that only God is unbegotten in every sense of the word. He has also pointed out that the Son IS begotten!

The United Bible Societies' comments about the anarthrous (without a definite article) use of theos at Jn 1:18 not only recognize it as the oldest form found in the ancient manuscripts, but adds: "There is no reason why the article ['the'] should have been deleted." - p. 198.

In other words, if a later copyist were to make a change (say, theos instead of kurios), it would not have been to remove the definite article but instead to add it! This is because John (as well as all the other Gospel writers) always used the non-prepositional nominative form of "God" (theos) with a definite article (ho, "the") when it referred to the only true God (ho theos) ! - (see DEF study end note #5.)

All emphasis above was added by me.
.
Christians have ALWAYS worshiped Jesus because Jesus is God!
Ignatius of Antioch
“Jesus Christ . . . was with the Father before the beginning of time, and in the end was revealed” (Letter to the Magnesians 6 [A.D. 110]).
Justin Martyr
“Jesus Christ is the only proper Son who has been begotten by God, being his Word and first-begotten, and power; and, becoming man according to his will, he taught us these things for the conversion and restoration of the human race” (First Apology 23 [A.D. 151]).
Irenaeus
“[The Gnostics] transfer the generation of the uttered word of men to the eternal Word of God, attributing to him a beginning of utterance and a coming into being . . . . In what manner, then, would the Word of God—indeed, the great God himself, since he is the Word—differ from the word of men?” (Against Heresies 2:13:8 [A.D. 189]).

“God begot before all creatures a beginning, who was a certain rational power from himself and whom the Holy Spirit calls . . . sometimes the Son . . . sometimes Lord and Word” (Dialogue with Trypho the Jew 61 [A.D. 155]).
Tertullian
“The Father makes him equal to himself, and the Son, by proceeding from him, was made the first-begotten, since he was begotten before all things, and the only-begotten, because he alone was begotten of God, in a manner peculiar to himself, from the womb of his own heart, to which even the Father himself gives witness: ‘My heart has poured forth my finest Word’ [Ps. 45:1–2]” (Against Praxeas 7:1 [A.D. 216]).

Hippolytus
“Therefore, this sole and universal God, by reflecting, first brought forth the Word—not a word as in speech, but as a mental word, the reason for everything. . . . The Word was the cause of those things which came into existence, carrying out in himself the will of him by whom he was begotten. . . . Only [God’s] Word is from himself and is therefore also God, becoming the substance of God” (Refutation of All Heresies 10:33 [A.D. 228]).
Origen
“So also Wisdom, since he proceeds from God, is generated from the very substance of God” (Commentary on Hebrews [A.D. 237]).
Gregory the Wonderworker
“There is one God, the Father of the living Word, who is his subsistent wisdom and power and eternal image: perfect begetter of the perfect begotten, Father of the only-begotten Son. There is one Lord, only of the only, God of God, image and likeness of deity, efficient Word, wisdom comprehensive of the constitution of all things, and power formative of the whole creation, true Son of true Father” (Declaration of Faith [A.D. 265]).

Lactantius
“When we speak of God the Father and God the Son, we do not speak of them as different, nor do we separate them, because the Father cannot exist without the Son, nor can the Son be separated from the Father, since the name of ‘Father’ cannot be given without the Son, nor can the Son be begotten without the Father. . . . [T]hey both have one mind, one spirit, one substance” (Divine Institutes 4:28–29 [A.D. 307]).
 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
Lactantius
“When we speak of God the Father and God the Son, we do not speak of them as different, nor do we separate them, because the Father cannot exist without the Son, nor can the Son be separated from the Father, since the name of ‘Father’ cannot be given without the Son, nor can the Son be begotten without the Father. . . . [T]hey both have one mind, one spirit, one substance” (Divine Institutes 4:28–29 [A.D. 307]).
Since both are the same, you say (agreeing with the author above), why are there two of them when it only requires one almighty to do all things?

In fact, then, could they be said to be each other: the son is the Father and the Father is the son… no difference remember??
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
Where does scriptures say that the spirit knows the mind of God?

1Cor 2:11

Brian2, the spirit OF GOD speaks to believers… OF GOD…

Brian2, what is the purpose of the word, ‘Of’ in the sentence, ‘The spirit of God’?

  • ‘The Spirit of God’ is the God that it is the spirit of… the spirit of the God it belongs to, the spirit is the property of itself!!!
Wow, Brian2! Where did you go to school?

The Spirit is a part of God.
The spirit of a man is a part of the man.
But as usual you miss the point. The Spirit knows stuff.
And you ignored the fact that the scriptures tell us that the Spirit dwells in a believer, the 'it' is alive.
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
John 1:18 does not tell us that Jesus is God.

Justin Martyr
(c. 100-165 A.D.)
Justin, whom the trinitarian The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church (p. 770) called “the most outstanding of the ‘Apologists,’” wrote:
"God alone is unbegotten and incorruptible, and therefore He is God, but all other things after him are created and corruptible {Justin has just concurred that the world was begotten by God} .... take your stand on one Unbegotten, and say this is the Cause of all." - Ante-Nicene Fathers (ANF) 1:197 (‘Dialogue’).

But,

"Jesus Christ is the only proper Son who has been begotten by God, being His Word and first-begotten" - ANF 1:170 (‘Apology’).

"And thus do we also, since our persuasion by the Word, stand aloof from them (i.e., the demons), and follow the only unbegotten God through His Son" - ANF 1:167 (‘Apology’).

Nevertheless, in Justin’s picture, as later in Tertullian’s, the generation of the Logos takes place only with a view to the world’s creation. The Son, therefore, is not co-eternal with God; Moreover, he exists to provide a mediator between God and the cosmos in creation and revelation, as the language of John 1:3 and 1:18, not to mention 1 Corinthians 8:6, seemed to suggest. Thus, the Logos theology appeared to introduce a ‘second God’ {deuteros theos ‘a second god’ was the well-known term used by Philo and many of the second century Christian writers - see the LOGOS study} inconsistently with the principle of monotheism; and further, it suggested that the Logos represented a secondary grade or kind of divinity. It ‘subordinated’ the Son to the Father. - p. 84, A History of the Christian Church, Walker (trinitarian), Scribner’s, 1985 printing.
........................................................................................
Theophilus
(c. 115-181 A.D.)
"ATTRIBUTES OF GOD. ... He is unbegotten; and He is unchangeable,.... And He is called .... Father, because he is before all [other] things... the Highest, because of His being above all; and Almighty" - ANF 2:90.

Theophilus is describing God - and pointing out that only God is unbegotten in every sense of the word. He has also pointed out that the Son IS begotten!

The United Bible Societies' comments about the anarthrous (without a definite article) use of theos at Jn 1:18 not only recognize it as the oldest form found in the ancient manuscripts, but adds: "There is no reason why the article ['the'] should have been deleted." - p. 198.

In other words, if a later copyist were to make a change (say, theos instead of kurios), it would not have been to remove the definite article but instead to add it! This is because John (as well as all the other Gospel writers) always used the non-prepositional nominative form of "God" (theos) with a definite article (ho, "the") when it referred to the only true God (ho theos) ! - (see DEF study end note #5.)

All emphasis above was added by me.

When was the Son begotten?
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
The "other sheep", would not be a reference to the Gentiles, in which Yeshua specifically denied his disciples from going too (Matthew 10:5), but they were to go to the "lost sheep", of the house of Israel.

In the middle of His ministry on earth Jesus sent out His disciples to the Jews. Later He sent out His disciples to the whole world.
Whom do you say the other sheep are if not the Gentiles?
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
LOL! You are jumping the gun! After Jesus’ supposed crucifixion and his supposed resurrection, Jesus told his disciples he’s NOT dead which was recorded in Luke 24:39 while the passage you quoted above is Luke 24:17-26 where the disciples could NOT have known Jesus was NEVER dead because Jesus HAS NOT TOLD them yet!! So, in Luke 24:17-26, the disciples, who did NOT even recognize Jesus, were relating what they, like everyone else, believed happened to Jesus until Jesus told them what REALLY happened to him and that was in Luke 24:39, NOT BEFORE Luke 24:17!! It seems like your screw-up logic is making you talk nonsense again!


And you claim that Jesus was telling His disciples at Luke 24:39 that He was alive and so had not died.
A few verses later however this is what Jesus said.
Luke 24:44 Then he said to them, “These are my words that I spoke to you while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the Law of Moses and the Prophets and the Psalms must be fulfilled.” 45 Then he opened their minds to understand the Scriptures, 46 and said to them, “Thus it is written, that the Christ should suffer and on the third day rise from the dead, 47 and that repentance for the forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in his name to all nations, beginning from Jerusalem.

 

Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
1Cor 2:11



The Spirit is a part of God.
The spirit of a man is a part of the man.
But as usual you miss the point. The Spirit knows stuff.
And you ignored the fact that the scriptures tell us that the Spirit dwells in a believer, the 'it' is alive.
Please can you show the explicit wording that says that the spirit of God knows the mind of God?

The spirit of God KNOWS STUFF??? You are kidding - right!!? You really need to say that the spirit of God knows stuff????

But wait… you say Jesus is God… and the spirit is God… is that right??

Im guessing your answer is ‘Yes, that’s true’!

So how do these verses read to you:
  • “But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.“ (Matthew 24:36)
  • “He [Jesus] said to them: “It is not for you to know the times or dates the Father has set by his own authority.” (Acts 1:7)
  • “But I [Jesus] have no right to say who will sit on my right or my left. God has prepared those places for the ones he has chosen.” (Mark 10:40)
In all of these verse Jesus, whom you say is almighty God, and is in the all knowing spirit … DOES NOT KNOW….!!!
 
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Soapy

Son of his Father: The Heir and Prince
When was the Son begotten?
The Son was begotten when the Father said:
  • “You are my Son, this day I have begotten you!”
This from Hebrews 5:1-10:
  • 1Every high priest is selected from among the people and is appointed to represent the people in matters related to God, to offer gifts and sacrifices for sins. 2He is able to deal gently with those who are ignorant and are going astray, since he himself is subject to weakness. 3This is why he has to offer sacrifices for his own sins, as well as for the sins of the people. 4And no one takes this honor on himself, but he receives it when called by God, just as Aaron was.
  • 5In the same way, Christ did not take on himself the glory of becoming a high priest. But God said to him,
  • You are my Son; today I have become your Father.a
  • 6And he says in another place,“You are a priest forever, in the order of Melchizedek.” b
  • 7During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. 8Son though he was, he learned obedience from what he suffered 9and, once made perfect, he became the source of eternal salvation for all who obey him 10and was designated by God to be high priest in the order of Melchizedek.”
Jesus is a [High] Priest appointed BY GOD … the appointment is noted by the ANOINTING WITH HOLY OIL… in Jesus’ case, there is no greater holy oil than the oil of gladness: the Spirit of God.
And we know this is true from Acts 19-37-38 and obviously from the baptism ceremony that where Jesus was announced as, ‘Son of God’, BY GOD!

Just as the high priest offers prayers and sacrifices for the sins of man, so Jesus offered, not perishable sacrifices that need to be repeated year after year, but himself as a sinless and righteous offering that never perishes - the Sin of Adam being irradiated eternally.
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
Please can you show the explicit wording that says that the spirit of God knows the mind of God?

The spirit of God KNOWS STUFF??? You are kidding - right!!? You really need to say that the spirit of God knows stuff????

1Cor 2:11 For who among men knows the thoughts of man except his own spirit within him? So too, no one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God.

But wait… you say Jesus is God… and the spirit is God… is that right??

Im guessing your answer is ‘Yes, that’s true’!

So how do these verses read to you:
  • “But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.“ (Matthew 24:36)
  • “He [Jesus] said to them: “It is not for you to know the times or dates the Father has set by his own authority.” (Acts 1:7)
  • “But I [Jesus] have no right to say who will sit on my right or my left. God has prepared those places for the ones he has chosen.” (Mark 10:40)
In all of these verse Jesus, whom you say is almighty God, and is in the all knowing spirit … DOES NOT KNOW….!!!

The Son is the Son and the Father is the Father and has the authority.
Jesus became a man and was put in the position of living as a man and trusting God for all things and did that and so did not know those things.
 
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