Either its transubstantiation and sacrifice, or its not literal transubstantiation and literal sacrifice. Choose a pair or be unfair.
When you say "transubstantiation" I take it you mean the conversion of the bread and wine into the actual body of Jesus flesh and blood. This is never taught it scripture my friend, when Jesus talked about his body and bread in Matthew 26:26, and like accounts, he was talking about the bread and wine as representing his flesh and blood in a symbolic way. The law forbid Jews from drinking blood, so to claim Jesus made the his disciples and himself drink the blood, when he "upheld the law perfectly" means he allowed himself and his followers disobey the law contrary to what scripture states. Again, bread and wine represents Jesus body symbolically, no one ever ate any of his flesh or blood, literally.
Moreover there is nothing in scripture that shows the Jesus literally giving his body and blood for us means you HAVE to accept transubstantiation, this is simply your wild claim that you haven't displayed to me using scripture.
NWL said:
People attempted to tempt Jesus but never was Jesus tempted or gave into temptation, this being said, show me a single scripture that states Jesus was tempted or sinned as you claim.
A single scripture cannot do that but here is an interesting one: "for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God," (Rom 3:23) This includes Jesus since Hebrews 5:29 points out he is not perfected until his death. The main reason though is that Jesus has a human heart, and the Law teaches that that Law must be kept with the heart not only with actions. Jeremiah testifies that the heart is deceitful above all things and desperately wicked. (Jer 17:29) If Jesus heart was human it was sinful.
The first verse doesn't contradict me, since Jesus doesn't do anything wrong on purpose.
The first verse I gave DOES contradict you, the context of 1 Peter 3:5 does not classify the sinless nature of Jesus being in regards to him sinning on purpose or not, this is your assumption. Show me a single shred of evidence to suggest the verse is talking about Jesus sinless nature here being in regards him not doing anything wrong on purpose.
The middle two verses are about Jesus after his resurrection.
You claim Jesus was sinful by nature, as he was human, if this was the case then he DID have sin in him, yet 1 John 3:5 "there was no sin in him", the fact this was referring to Jesus after his resurrection changes nothing, how you think it does I don't know. Secondly 1 Peter 1:18,19 is referring to Jesus at the time of his death, hence the reason the speaker compares him to the sacrificial lamb being offered up, and how does it describe him "unblemished and spotless", so at the time of Jesus death, before his resurrection Jesus was "unblemished and spotless", this goes directly contrary to what you claim.
The fourth verse demonstrates Jesus was tested in every way demonstrating his evil human heart, because if his heart wasn't evil he couldn't be tempted.
I'm not trying to be rude here, but this reasoning is incredibly stupid. Lets imagine a perfect man was standing in front of you. If I attempt to tempt that perfect sinless man, and the sinless man doesn't give into sin, is this proof that the man is now sinful? No! As the man still hasn't sinned. Likewise, just because Jesus was tested doesn't mean that his heart or himself was sinful, Jesus had the
potential to become sinful, just like Adam did, but he never did, thus he was and still is without sin.
2 Cor 5:21 states
"The one who did not know sin, he made to be sin for us, so that by means of him we might become God’s righteousness." 2 Cor 5:21 clearly shows Jesus "did not know sin", this included his nature and his human heart that you make mention of. Jesus was born outside from sin unlike the rest of mankind (Rom 3:23), therefore he was not deserving of death hence the reason why death could not hold him and he was resurrected. Romans 6:23 states the "wages for sin is death", if Jesus was sinful then how could he even be our ransom, since it would count for nothing since he was already deserving of death as Romans 6:23 states?
You keep shying away from my question, If Jesus was raised in a body of flesh then what did he sacrifice if he took back the body he sacrificed?