All acts of violation or violence another person are wrong, sexually-motivated or otherwise. I didn't even need a religion to figure this out. I would hope that all religions have some similar tenet.
No kidding.
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All acts of violation or violence another person are wrong, sexually-motivated or otherwise. I didn't even need a religion to figure this out. I would hope that all religions have some similar tenet.
In Old Testament law, a woman had to marry her rapist or be put to death. No penalty for the rapist though.
That is not true.
That is not true.
You're right. Just looked the scripture up again. It doesn't say she can be put to death, just that she has to marry him.
If the woman was a virgin and she was raped, then yes the rapist was to marry her and could not divorce her.
Deuteronomy 22:29
'She must marry the rapist, because he has violated her. And so long as he lives, he may not divorce her.'
Neither does it say the Hebrews raped them. Rape was forbidden by the law.
This must be taken in the context of the Hebrew culture at that time in history. It was a law in place for the protection, provision and restitution for the woman. In many cultures and countries if a man had sexual relations which a woman oftentimes the man was expected to marry her, or forced to by her family and community.
Being that it was from God I feel like it could have been done...idk better?
Rape
I was reading in an online forum that Judaism advocates that a rapist marry his victim. This sounds so backward and oppressive, and difficult to reconcile with the compassionate Judaism that I know and love. Is what I read accurate?
The Aish Rabbi Replies:
Highly inaccurate. (Are you surprised?)
Judaism takes a strong position against rape, with the Talmud comparing it to murder. As such, Judaism permits one to kill a rapist who is in pursuit of a woman, in order to save her from attack.
Rape of a married woman is a capital crime. (Deuteronomy 22:25)
Rape of a single woman carries a heavy monetary fine, plus the rapist has to pay reparation for embarrassment, damages and emotional anguish. The rapist also incurs lashes. This is all intended as both a deterrent and a punishment. (Deuteronomy 22:28-29)
As regards to what you read, Judaism gives the woman the option of demanding that the rapist marry her. (We can only speculate why she would so desire, but nevertheless it is her exclusive option.)
Feel free to post this response on that online forum.
Rape: Intimacy Issues Response on Ask the Rabbi
If there is a betrothed virgin, and a man meets her in the city and lies with her, then you shall bring them both out to the gate of that city, and you shall stone them to death with stones, the young woman because she did not cry for help though she was in the city, and the man because he violated his neighbor's wife. So you shall purge the evil from your midst. But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die. But you shall do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no offense punishable by death. For this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbor, because he met her in the open country, and though the betrothed young woman cried for help there was no one to rescue her. If a man meets a virgin who is not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found, then the man who lay with her shall give to the father of the young woman fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has violated her. He may not divorce her all his days." -Deuteronomy 22:22-29
So if it happens in a city, they both have to die, but if it happens in the open country, only the man dies. I guess you're right, there is a law against rape, but it's barbaric as all hell. Score 1 for God...
If you will read the text descriptions carefully you'll see there is a difference between the two situations. In the first which occurs in the city there is no indication that the woman was forced...("if there is a betrothed virgin, and a man meets her in the city and lies with her") and it is indicated she was betrothed which was considered as binding as marriage in that culture. So because she was betrothed, was not forced and was in the city where she could have cried out for help if she wasn't a willing participant she too was punished for the sin considered on the level of adultery.
In the second situation...(But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die.) the woman is not punished because the text clearly says she was forced or seized and because when it occurred in the open country even when she cried out for help no one may have been around to hear.
Seems like a cop-out. More likely than not, somebody in charge of making a "modernized" translation noticed this and didn't want to make God's law sound so barbaric. I'm going to look up different translations and see if it stays consistent.
Is it considered an abomination? A sin? Or not considered at all?
What are the circumstances that must be present for it to be considered rape?
What is the appropriate punishment for rapists according to your religious doctrine?
Are the considerations made by your religion paralleled in your local law enforcement and court system? Do you think it should be?
Finally, do you believe what your religion has to say about rape correct and ethical? Why or why not?
What does Islam say about rape? Anyone knows?
Depends on the particular Cleric and his base of support.
(The following position is based on a few prominent clerics who have very widespread support).
» Islamic Cleric Issues Fatwa Permitting Rape of Syrian Women Alex Jones' Infowars: There's a war on for your mind!
The pope might be against rape, but the Bible sure isn't. In Old Testament law, a woman had to marry her rapist or be put to death. No penalty for the rapist though.
Notice that neither passage uses the word taphas, providing additional support that this word in of itself doesn’t necessarily imply the use of force. It also demonstrates our point that if the inspired author had rape in view he could have simply used chazaq, or even laqach, since these are the very words he used elsewhere to indicate that a rape had occurred.(1)
I take everything Info Wars says with a grain of salt... They're also the ones who make those Illuminati conspiracy videos.