Why is it that the mandate against homosexuality is the only thing not corrected by the New Covenant?
So people point out all the slave beating, adulterer stoning, not wearing mixed fabric, telling women to be silent in church, etc, that exists in the Old Testament and the answer is "that was just for the Jews" or "we're not bound to that anymore because Jesus made a new covenant with us."
But for some reason modern Christian hold on to the Old Testament mandates against homosexuality! Why didn't that get corrected along with the slave beating, subjugation of women, etc.? Right? Otherwise, where in the New Testament do we see the mandate against homosexuality?
It's weird, y'all use the NT excuse to wipe away a lot of the evil crap in the OT, but for some reason you hang on to the gay hate like crazy.
What the NT scheme does is it says that (A) brutal punishments should be done away with and that we should live with mercy, and that
(B) special rituals restricted to Jews should be done away with, but that (C) otherwise there are things in the Old Testament that we still see as sinful.
So under (A), we no longer should stone adulterers (Gospel of John) or kill gays for homosexuality (it is not stated in the Bible, but implicit that we should not do this any more), but instead tell them to "repent and sin no more".
And under (B), Jews can wear mixed fabric now.
But under (C), adultery and homosexuality are still sinful and wrong.
I realize that modern skeptics can make criticisms of this and think that adultery and homosexuality are only sinful if you accept the Biblical constructs and mentality.
But I am just trying to answer your question Demonslayer about the logic of the New Testament and how it treats these topics. The answer to your question are, factually speaking, what I outlined above.