And my point is that it makes no sense referring to existence outside of time.
It doesn't have to make sense to you. Quantum mechanics doesn't make "sense" to anyone. Feynman said...nobody understands quantum mechanics. Because our rational brains are at their limits of sensibility with these phenomena.
Imagine how limited our rationality is when trying to understand reality. For instance try and describe what it would be like experience the boundary of our universe and the limits of its current expansion. I mean really...what is it expanding in? What was our universe surrounded by when it was in a state of singularity?
cause and effect have a temporal relationship. If something caused something else, time passed.
That's how we experience reality on our macroscopic level. At the quantum level cause and effect are a little murky and quite a mystery.
We experience causes first then effects because of the macroscopically perceived "arrow" of time. However the reversibility of the laws of physics at the microscopic level make those experiences time reversible as well. In quantum mechanics the effects of ones actions can dictate what causes the results of the experiment. If were talking microscopic states its as possible that the broken egg caused the unbroken egg to fall off the table as it is that the falling egg was the cause of the egg to break. Our macroscopic state has our awareness experiencing a directionality to cause and effect but no one knows why the macroscopic and microscopic states don't seem to be symmetrical.
Physics does not distinguish between the realness of the present and the realness of the past or future. The laws of physics treat the past, present, and future as if they are all real at the same "time".
Why we remember the past and not the future seems absurdly obvious but it is a real question asked by physicists that begged to be answered. The ONLY reason we presume effects "follow" causes is because of the apparent directionality of entropy from low to high which gives us a "phenomenological real-life" perceived "arrow" of time. Why we perceive time passing between cause and effect and we perceive a cause always preceding an effect is not a deeply engrained product of the nature of time. It is a feature of the limitations of our perception of our environment. Research....Boltzmann on entropy, "The Past Hypothesis" as well as Lohschmidt's Reversibility Objection.
On another note how much time do you think passed between whatever caused the singularity to expand and its effect - the actual beginning of that expansion? In order for the cause of the expansion to precede the effect which is that expansion that cause would have to have been "timeless" another way of saying "outside of time" IF space and time began at t=0 expansion.
They would each have a T=0 related to the multiverse's timeline.
The point is...there is no "multiverse timeline". What would such a timeline be keeping track of? Hours, minutes, days, years? And what would those durations be in relation to? Those are all arbitrary indicators of our own perception of entropic change. A perception that is localized to our own environment. There is no "time" before the big bang because there was no entropic change prior to it. Any entropic change to these other universes would be isolated to those other universes. Each of those universes would be a truly closed system. There is no such thing as the "total" entropic state of the multiverse according to that theory. It isn't a real thing. It is a label given for the set of all possible universes.
We each began to exist (T=0) as an individual organism at some point on the world timeline.
Your talking about a specific change in the entropic state of the universe. That's it. That's all you can say. Relevant specifically to when you came into existence in relation to other already existent things perhaps but that is totally irrelevant to what time is, how we perceive time, and whether or not anything can predate the existence of what we consider to be time. Your "time" may be perceived as important to you but it certainly isn't important to what time is.
So I guess I'm not sure what your point is here.
If there were no other reality apart from a single electron, to say that it exists is to say that it passes from was to is, and for as long as it continues to exist, to will be.
And how do you measure the duration before it came into existence? And how do you measure the duration from that point to when it ceases to exist? Time and duration are macroscopic experiences.
Think about how we measure time. We measure time through relationships. How long is a second? How long a minute etc. All our measurements are relative to our ability to recognize differences in relationships. But what if an object exists but doesn't change until it does. How do we measure the duration between nothing changing and then change?
Without time, there is no motion nor any other kind of change.
*We've already discussed the beginnings of time and space with the Big Bang. Prior to the Big Bang the singularity existed. Since space and with it time began with the Big Bang the duration between the singularity and whatever initiated its expansion in a Big Bang was zero. It would have been and instantaneous change of state. To say it was in a changeless state for a duration before it changed states would be meaningless. We could say it was that way for a quadrillion years or a zeptosecond it wouldn't matter. It would be meaningless to assign duration.
**The collapse of a quantum wave for all intents and purposes appears to be instantaneous.
***Quantum entanglement appears to be instantaneous (Einstein's spooky action at a distance)
So, at least for now seems that there are things which can change without duration.
You're not talking about movement if you don't have a from time and place followed by a to time and place.
This is a thought experiment since change of no duration hasn't been proven specifically only hypothetically from the initial condition of the universe. Note, it hasn't been proven impossible either and is suspected possible as the examples I've given indicate. So...I didn't mean specifically a spatial movement. Of course Einstein for one married space to time literally not simply relationally. So movements through space/time seem to be a bit tricky and nonsensical to our macroscopic perceptions. Can we pop through spatial distances while expending no duration doing it? That to my knowledge has not been definitively settled and is currently debatable. Can space/time dimensions be twerked somehow to allow for such things without violating the inviolable speed of light limit? I'm not sure if anyone knows. Is it impossible? I'm not sure anyone knows that either. If someone reading this has some data concerning such things I'd be interested to see it is all I can say. Anyways....
If A changed to B and B to C without duration between either change then its just as well to say that A changed to C instantly. Time is a macroscopic quality of reality. To us we acknowledge a duration to A's existence not by A's change specifically, since A doesn't change until it does, but by by changes in A's environment. Since A jumped to B and B to C but each without duration we can only acknowledge A's immediate change to C at which point A's apparent duration ceased since we are creatures with very narrow awareness of the present not the entirety of the past through to the future. What happened to B then? Since the changes were immediate and of no duration, to us B never existed. It wasn't time dependent like our perception is. But B does exist. A is dependent upon B to change to C in some connected manner. Perhaps these B's, what ever they would be, are the missing pieces to the TOE? There is no theoretical reason ,that I know of, why change of no duration cannot happen. Indeed if Hawking was correct for one it did happen when the initial conditions changed that caused the Big Bang.
If there is any annoying typos or errors in my grammar please forgive me. I'm getting terrible with editing.