I think it is necessary to point out that most dictatorships, except those who are based on military rule or monarchies, have elections and cliam to derive their power from the people. It is something which goes back to when Napoleon (the first one) who had a referndum in 1800 over whether he could become First Consul and (I think) there was a referendum on whether he could be declared Emporer in 1803. His Newphew, Napoleon the Third ruled France and used a plebicite/referendum to consolodate his cliam to power in 1851.
Hitler was given power as the result of a democratic election with 43.9% of the Vote and appointed Chancellor in
1933 and continued to have elections under Nazi rule in
November 1933,
1936 and
1938. The Bolsheviks were also involved in elections to the Tsarist Duma in
January 1907,
October 1907,
1912, and also participated in the elections for the national assembly in
1917 coming second with 23.5% of the Vote. When the Bolsheviks re-named themselves the Communists, they continued to have elections and elections were a feature of pretty much all communist governments, including the remaining ones like China, Cuba, Vietnam and even
last year in North Korea. The idea that dictatorship and democracies are mutually exclusive is a false one, since all of the above had elections as a way to substanciate the cliam that power derived from the people, even when there was only one party involved in the elections.
I think it's less about a question about whether people want a democracy or a dictatorship and how we can be so sure that we indeed have the 'right' kind of democracy. Can we be sure that an election with only one party can be considered un-democratic and that the greatest dictators in history were not enacting the will of the people?